Tiêu đề RECALLS 10 - NP4 - SC ✅

3 | Page C. Increased frequency of urination D. Fatigue, anorexia, nausea, and vomiting 31. Transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) is performed. Four hours after surgery, Nurse Ming assesses the patient. Which finding requires immediate notification to the physician? A. Bloody urine drained B. Pain level of 3/10 C. Blood pressure: 90/60, HR: 110 D. Urinary output of 1,400 mL with intake of 1,200 mL 32. A patient with an indwelling Foley catheter (IFC) is at risk for infection. To prevent complications, which of the following practices is incorrect? A. Wash the perineal area with soap and water at least twice a day. B. If the patient is prone to obstructions, use a two-way catheter. C. Use aseptic technique for inserting the catheter. D. Empty the collection bag at least every 8 hours. Situation: You are invited as a guest speaker to discuss genitourinary diseases and their prevention with a diverse audience in a barangay health seminar. The attendees include individuals of different ages and backgrounds. 33. During your talk on urinary disease prevention, which of the following preventive measures should NOT be included? A. Avoid wearing tight clothes and wear silk pants. B. If pregnant, void every 2 hours. C. If menopausal, use estrogen vaginal creams. D. Use water-soluble lubricants for sexual intercourse. 34. During your barangay visit, you perform basic screening tests, including urinalysis using the clean-catch method. Which of the following steps is incorrect? A. Label the specimen completely on the lid. B. Fill the container with 15 mL to 30 mL of urine. C. Void a small amount of urine into the toilet first. D. Male patients are instructed to retract the foreskin and clean the glans of the penis before collecting the sample. Situation: You are assigned to a patient who was admitted for vague periumbilical pain with reports of progression to right lower quadrant pain. 35. The present diagnosis for the patient is appendicitis, what sign does the physician would like to elicit if he palpates the left lower quadrant and paradoxically causes pain to be felt in the right lower quadrant? A. McBurney’s point B. Rebound tenderness C. Rovsing’s sign D. Cecum’s pain 36. The patient complained of constipation, nausea and abdominal pain while waiting for his schedule for surgery, which of the following is contraindicated in his condition? A. Laxative B. Cathartic C. Enema D. All of the above 37. The diagnostic and laboratory findings were uploaded to the system and upon checking, which of the following will you expect to be elevated within the first 12 hours of symptoms? A. C-reactive protein levels B. Urine specific gravity C. Eosinophils D. All of the above 38. Immediate appendectomy is usually indicated once appendicitis is diagnosed, which of the following is true regarding antibiotic prophylaxis for patient undergoing appendectomy? A. Recommended for less than 36 hours for nonperforated appendicitis B. Recommended for less than 18 hours for nonperforated appendicitis C. Recommended for less than 5 days for perforated appendicitis D. Recommended for less than 10 days for perforated appendicitis 39. Post-appendectomy, the nurse should place the patient in which of the following positions? A. Left lateral position, HOB at 45 degrees B. High fowlers position C. Right lateral position, HOB at 45 degrees D. HOB at 30 degrees 40. Aside from pain management, what priority action should the nurse include in her nursing interventions after the patient’s appendectomy? A. Administration of morphine or any parenteral opioid. B. Administration of IV fluids C. Encouraging the patient on use of incentive spirometer for at least every 2 hours. D. Switching from parenteral to oral fluids for hydration once tolerated. Situation: Peptic ulcer diseases may be referred to as gastric, duodenal, or esophageal ulcers, depending on its location. You are handling patients who are diagnosed with PUDs at an outpatient clinic. 41. As you explain the nature of ulcers among the newly diagnosed clients, which of the following will you not include in the patient health education? A. It is an excavation or hollowed-out area that forms in the mucosa of the stomach, duodenum, or esophagus. B. The erosion may extend as deeply as the hypodermis and subcutaneous layer, but not through the muscle layers. C. Peptic ulcers are more likely to occur in the duodenum than in the stomach D. None of the above, all statements are true 42. Aside from H.pylori infection, which of the following will you educate the patients to be considered as a major risk factor for peptic ulcers? A. Alcohol consumption B. Familial tendency C. Smoking D. Use of NSAIDs 43. Generally, how would you identify pain manifestations of a person suffering from peptic ulcer diseases? A. Dull, gnawing pain or a burning sensation in the mid epigastrium or the back. B. Sharp, sudden pain or burning sensation in the mid epigastrium C. Dull ache around the hypogastric area, aggravated by eating. D. Dull and cramping pain in the abdomen, aggravated by eating. 44. A patient came to the clinic with signs of exacerbation and complications from duodenal ulcer, which of the following will you NOT expect to see in the patient? A. Hemorrhage B. Perforation C. Gastritis D. Obstruction 45. For patients with peptic ulcer diseases, the general management is recommended drug therapy combination typically prescribed 10 – 14 days but can extend up to 6 to 8 weeks if it involves complete ulcer healing. If H2-receptor antagonists are prescribed for patients’ ulcer healing, what is the expected duration of maintenance medication for patients who are at high risk? A. 6 months B. 12 months C. 3 months D. 9 months 46. One of your patients was diagnosed with PUD, however, she was also found to be pregnant. Which of the following will alarm you if prescribed to the patient? A. Cimetidine B. Misoprostol C. Omeprazole D. None of the above
4 | Page Situation: Tumors of the colon and rectum are relatively common, and the most significant risk factor is older age. 47. Which of the following choices will you not include as a risk factor for colorectal cancer? A. Cigarette smoking B. High consumption of alcohol C. History of radiation to the pelvis D. High-fat, low-protein (with low intake of beef), low- fiber diet 48. The clinical manifestation presents itself differently depending on the location of the tumor in the affected intestinal segment. What is the most likely affected side if the patient presents to the clinic with dull abdominal pain and melena? A. Right-sided tumor B. Left-sided tumor C. Rectal tumor D. Hemorrhoids 49. For surveillance purposes, a 45-year-old client came to the clinic to have which of the following procedures for screening of colorectal cancer? A. Colonoscopy B. CEA level (carcinoembryonic antigen) C. CT Scan of abdomen D. Sigmoidoscopy 50. Surgery is the mainstay of initial treatment for colorectal cancer, which of the following accurately describes the Miles resection treatment? A. Removal of the tumor and portions of the bowel on either side of the growth, but not the blood vessels and lymphatic nodes B. Removal of the tumor and portions of the bowel on either side of the growth, as well as the blood vessels and lymphatic nodes C. Removal of the tumor and a portion of the sigmoid and all of the rectum and anal sphincter D. Temporary colostomy followed by segmental resection 51. If the patient is admitted and is scheduled for surgical treatment of his colorectal cancer, which of the following is incorrect to include in the dietary preoperative care for the patient? A. It is important to build the patient’s stamina in the days preceding surgery. B. Diet high in calories, protein, and carbohydrates and low in residue. C. The goal for the dietary intake several days before the surgery is to provide adequate nutrition and increase excessive peristalsis D. None of the above 52. Which of the following is true about inserting an NG tube for preoperative intervention? A. To drain accumulated fluids B. To prevent abdominal distention C. Both A and B D. Neither A nor B Situation: Hepatic dysfunction results from damage to the liver’s parenchymal cells. You are reviewing about the hepatic disorders as you are currently working on a research project involving patients with this illness. 53. One of the clients asked you why patients with liver disease often appear yellow, you are correct when you explain which of the following? A. Due to increased bile concentration in the blood in the presence of liver disease. B. Due to decreased destruction of red blood cells. C. As the flow of bile is impeded, bilirubin concentration in the blood accumulates. D. As the bilirubin enters the intestines, there is increase in urobilinogen under the skin. 54. Related to one of the most common manifestations of liver diseases, which of the following is not related to ascites? A. Increased abdominal girth and rapid weight gain B. Short of breath C. Striae and constricted veins may be visible over the abdominal wall D. Fluid and electrolyte imbalances 55. In creating the plan of care, which of the following should NOT be incorporated in the dietary treatment of the patient with ascites? A. Goal of treatment is a negative sodium balance to reduce fluid retention B. Diets that are not made to be a low-salt diet should be avoided. C. Salt substitutes such as lemon juice, oregano, and thyme can be used by the patient. D. Commercial salt substitutes can be readily used by the patient. 56. In assessing for abdominal fluid wave, which should NOT be done by the nurse? A. The examiner places the hands along the sides of the patient’s flank B. An assistant’s hand is placed (ulnar side up) along the patient’s midline C. The examiner strikes one flank sharply D. None of the above 57. Once the physician decides to do a percutaneous liver biopsy, which intercostal space would you expect to be inserted into? A. Between 10 to 11 B. Between 6 to 7 C. Between 7 to 8 D. Between 8 to 9 Situation: You are caring for patients who are diagnosed with gastrointestinal cancer. 58. Which of the following dietary practice increases the chances of developing gastric cancer? A. Diet high in smoked, salted, or pickled foods and low in fruits and vegetables B. Diet high in smoked, low in salted, or pickled foods, low on meat C. Diet high in fat and meat, low in fruits and vegetables D. Diet is not a significant risk factor 59. While doing the health history and physical examination with the patient with suspected gastric ulcer, which of the following may be associated with the illness? I. Pain relieved by antacids II. Dyspepsia III. Early satiety IV. Weight gain V. Abdominal pain just below the umbilicus VI. Loss of appetite A. II, V, VI B. I, II, III, IV, VI C. I, II, III, VI D. I, II, IV, VI 60. The patient is scheduled to have Antrectomy Billroth I (gastroduodenostomy), she asked you to clarify what the procedure is about after the meeting with the physician. You are correct when you said which of the following? A. Removal of the lower portion of the antrum of the stomach, as well as a small portion of the duodenum and pylorus B. Longitudinal incision is made into the pylorus and transversely sutured closed to enlarge the outlet and relax the muscle C. Removal of lower portion (antrum) of stomach with anastomosis to jejunum D. Severs the right and left vagus nerves as they enter the stomach at the distal part of the esophagus 61. There are few cancers that originate from the liver, which of the following is NOT associated with developing primary liver tumors? A. Hepatitis B infection B. Hepatitis C infection C. Cirrhosis D. Metastases 62. Which of the following will you not include in the initial diagnostic workup for liver cancer? A. CT scan