Tiêu đề ĐỀ THI HSG ANH 8 TP SẦM SƠN - THANH HOÁ 2022-2023.docx ✅

1 PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO THÀNH PHỐ SẦM SƠN ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC (Đề thi có 08 trang) KỲ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP THÀNH PHỐ NĂM HỌC 2022-2023 MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH – LỚP 8 Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề PART A: LISTENING (15 points) Part 1. You will hear an interview with a teenager called Amy Manero, who is talking about her interest in music, particularly jazz piano. Choose the correct answer from A, B, or C for each question. You will hear the recording twice. 1. When did Amy have lessons with a piano teacher? A. at the age of four. B. before she started secondary school. C. after getting advice from her school music teacher. 2. How did Amy feel at her first big public event? A. excited because she was wearing a wonderful costume. B. nervous because it was her first time on stage. C. surprised because the audience was very big. 3. What does Amy say about playing jazz with the school band? A. She put lots of effort into learning about it. B. She was better at it than the rest of the players. C. She enjoyed it as soon as she started. 4. Amy gives piano lessons so that she can _____________. A. help people who couldn’t normally afford them. B. encourage lots of young people to play the piano. C. improve her own playing technique. 5. Why does Amy write a blog on the internet? A. to get some experience for becoming a journalist. B. to tell people about her daily life as a musician. C. to recommend events for people to go to. Part 2. You will hear a boy, called Adam, telling his class about a hot air balloon flight he went on. Fill in each blank with NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS. You will hear the recording twice. ADAM’S HOT AIR BALLOON FLIGHT 6. The flight in the balloon lasted _____________. 7. Adam could see as far as the _____________ from the balloon.
2 8. Adam didn’t recognize a _____________ from the air. 9. Adam was surprised that it was _____________ in the balloon basket. 10. Adam didn’t like having to _____________ in the basket. Part 3. Listen to Adam and Emma talking about holidays and decide whether each of the following statements is True (T) or False (F). You will hear the recording twice. 11. Adam has already booked his holiday. 12. Emma doesn’t like sitting on beaches all day. 13. Emma might not go on holiday this year. 14. Adam usually goes to Scotland in the summer. 15. Emma thinks that hotels in Scotland are expensive. PART B: PHONETICS (5 points) Question I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest in the same line. (3 points) 16. A. island B. establish C. aspect D. escape 17. A. food B. fool C. foot D. tooth 18. A. exchanged B. coughed C. controlled D. covered Question II. Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three words in each question. (2 points) 19. A. realize B. improve C. possible D. comfortable 20. A. important B. especially C. prefer D. influence PART C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (30 points) Question I. Circle the best option from A, B, C, or D to complete the following sentences. (15 points) 21. It’s not easy to study a foreign language by _____________. A. oneself B. himself C. itself D. herself 22. Shall I put the books on the floor? – No, I want to keep the _____________. A. tidy room B. room tidily C. room is tidy D. room tidy 23. When she looked in her purse, she found she had been _____________. A. broken B. thieved C. stolen D. robbed 24. A lot needs _____________ to the house before anyone can move in. A. be done B. to do C. doing D. done
3 25. When shall we meet: at 7.30 or 8.00? – I don’t mind _____________. A. either time B. neither of them C. both time D. neither time 26. The programme on TV attracted millions of _____________. A. audience B. spectators C. viewers D. witnesses 27. Florida, _____________ the Sunshine State, attracts many tourists every year. A. is B. known as C. is known as D. that is known as 28. Never before _____________ such a wonderful sight. A. I have seen B. I had seen C. I saw D. have I seen 29. He was _____________ speaker. A. so good a B. what a good C. so a good D. how good a 30. The teacher _____________ against talking to strangers. A. recommended B. suggested C. advised D. said 31. My grandfather was a lovely person who _____________ pleasure from helping others. A. derived B. gathered C. deduced D. collected 32. - Hoa: “Would you mind my smoking?” - Mai: “_____________” A. OK B. Sorry, I can’t. C. No. Please go ahead. D. I’d rather you didn’t. 33. _____________ his advice, I would have never got the job. A. Except B. Apart from C. But for D. As for 34. I met _____________ one-eyed man at the gate. A. the B. an C. a D. no article 35. _____________ at his lessons, he couldn’t catch up with his classmates. A. Hardly as he worked B. Hard as he worked C. Hard as he does D. Hard as he was Question II. Supply the correct form of the verbs in brackets. Write the answers on your answer sheet (5 pts). 36. He prefers driving to (drive) _____________. 37. It’s essential that he (arrive) _____________ before seven. 38. I’d rather you (not wear) _____________ jeans to the office. 39. My little sister (read) _____________ Sleeping Beauty several times. 40. I (improve) _____________ my English-speaking skills, I would easily get that job. Question III. Supply the correct form of the words in capital. Write the answers on your answer sheet
4 (5 pts). 41. The cities are full of _____________ looking for work. (MIGRATE) 42. His boss told him off because he had behaved _____________. (RESPONSIBLE) 43. She got very angry but later she apologised for her _____________. (PATIENT) 44. Have you got any _____________? (SUGGEST) 45. It is usually forbidden to destroy _____________ building. (HISTORY) Question IV. There is one mistake in each sentence, find out and correct it (5 pts). 46. I’m trying to persuade my sister to drive, but I can’t get her do it. 47. Can you tell me where were you born? - Stockholm. 48. Each of the students in the class has to do their own assignment this semester. 49. John was upset last night because he had to do too many homework. 50. Fifteen hundred dollars a year were the per capita income in the United States in 1950. PART D: READING (30 points) I. Choose a suitable word that best fits each blank in the following passage. Most students, in their own countries have had little opportunity to practise using English. When foreign learners first have the (51) _____________ to speak to an English-speaking person they may have a shock: they often (52) _____________ great difficulty in understanding. I’ll just mention three of the possible reasons for this. First, it seems to students that English people speak very quickly. (53) _____________, they speak with a variety of accents. Third, different styles of speech are used. For all of these reasons (54) _____________ will have difficulty, mainly because they lack everyday practice in listening to English people speaking English. (55) _____________ can a student do then to overcome these difficulties? Obviously, attend English classes and if a language laboratory is available, use it as (56) _____________ as possible. He should listen to programs in English on the radio and TV. Perhaps, most important of (57) _____________, he should take every opportunity to meet and speak with native English-speaking people. In addition, the student probably has difficulty in speaking English fluently. The advice here will seem (58) _____________ to follow but it’s necessary. Firstly, he must simplify what he wants to say so that he can express himself reasonably and clearly. Secondly, he must try to think in English, (59) _____________ translate from his mother tongue. This will only begin to take place when his use of English becomes automatic; using a language laboratory (60) _____________ listening to as much English as possible will help.