Tiêu đề ĐỀ THI HSG ANH 8 TP SẦM SƠN - THANH HOÁ 2023-2024.docx ✅

1 PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO THÀNH PHỐ SẦM SƠN ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP THÀNH PHỐ NĂM HỌC: 2023-2024 MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 8 Ngày thi: 27 tháng 3 năm 2024 Thời gian: 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) (Đề thi gồm có 08 trang) Part A: LISTENING (15 points) HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU  Bài nghe gồm 3 phần, mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần, mỗi lần cách nhau khoảng 20 giây, mở đầu và kết thúc mỗi phần nghe có tín hiệu.  Mở đầu và kết thúc bài nghe có tín hiệu nhạc. Thi sinh có 3 phút để hoàn chỉnh bài sau tín hiệu nhạc kết thúc bài nghe.  Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe PART I: Listen to the recording twice. Choose the correct letter, A, B or C for each blank (5.0 points) 1. The camping trip will be held __________. A. the following month. B. from the 24th to the 26th. C. over a five-day period. 2. Jamies complaint about last years trip was that __________. A. the camp wasn't big enough. B. he was unhappy while at the camp C. he had problems finding the camp. 3. The campsite is located __________. A. in the Lake District. B. in Carlisle. C. beside Lake Brant. 4. Jamie thinks the forests will be good for children who __________. A. are used to nature B. live in cities C. like sports. 5. Each child will pay __________. A. less than £4 a night. B. approximately £5. C. more than £10. PART II: Complete the sentences below. Write no more than three words or a number for each answer (5.0 points) 6. After they arrive, the children will have a __________ at 8 o'clock. 7. On Saturday morning the children will get up at __________. 8. During the 'talk back' session the children can __________ their day.
2 9. On Sunday the children will go on a day trip to visit __________. 10. At 6 o'clock on Sunday the children will be on the __________. Part III. You will hear a conversation between a student and a lecturer. Listen carefully and decide whether each of the following statements is True (T) or False (F) (5.0 points) 11. The sudents is looking for the school of Economics. 12. The orientation meeting took place recently. 13. The attendance at lecture is sometimes unnecessary. 14. Tutorials take place every morning at 9 o'clock. 15. Doctor Robertson is the lecturer's name. Part B: PHONETICS (5.0 points) Question I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others in the same line and write A, B, C or D on your answer sheet (3.0 points). 16. A. prepared B. organized C. impressed D. involved 17. A. surround B. source C. account D. plough 18. A. deny B. beautify C. qualify D. sympathy Question II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the others in the same line and write A, B, C or D on your answer sheet (2.0 points). 19. A. risky B. conserve C. liquid D. forest 20. A. certificate B. apartment C. individual D. biology Part C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (30 points) Question 1. Choose the word/ phrase that best fits the gap in each of the following sentences and write A, B, C or D on your answer sheet. (10.0 points) 21. Whenever I __________ her, I say hello. A. see B. will see C. will have scen D. saw 22. Lucy was late for school this morning because the alarm didn't __________ as usual A. get off B. go off C. ring off D. take off 23. These books belong to you. I'm sure they are __________. A. you're B. your's C. yours D. your 24. I'm expecting to have this book __________ soon this year. A. published B. publishing C. to publish D. publish
3 25. However __________ about the results, the children still talk merrily. A. disappointed are they B. disappointing they are C. disappointment D. disappointed they are 26. Since there are two villages located at the foot of the volcano, the local population was __________. A. evacuated B. killed C. died D. injured 27. My parents saw a __________ play last night. A. three acts B. three-acts C. three-act D. three act 28. Not for a moment __________ the truth of the case. A. he doubted B. was he doubting C. he did doubt D. did he doubt 29. Anna: "You don't have to go to school this afternoon, do you?" Bob: "__________." A. What does that mean? B. No, I needn't C. Yes, I don't have to D. That's OK 30. The people in my class, __________ are very friendly. A. most of international students B. the most international students C. almost international students D. mostly international students Question II. Supply the correct form of the verbs in brackets. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (8.0 points) 31. He (always enter) __________ the room without knocking the door first, which is annoying. 32. I wish I (see) __________ more of him before the war. 33. This is the first time that his authority (challenge) __________. 34. It is necessary that he (take) __________ an examination. 35. Do you mind (disturb) __________ when you are working? 36. They can't help (make) __________ a noise. 37. By the time we get there, I'm afraid that the meeting (end) __________. 38. Hello! You (be) __________ Helen. I'm Peter's brother, Geogre. Question III. Supply the correct form of the words in brackets. Write the answers onyour answer sheet (7.0 points). 39. Pesticides and chemical fertilizers can be __________ to both the environment and human health. TOXICITY 40. The rainforest is the __________ of many species of animals and plants. HABITATION 41 Linh is a __________. She spend so much time and money on shopping. SHOP
4 42. Hieu Thu Hai doesn't know how to __________, so he paid too much for his T-shirt. BARGAINER 43. We just left the city __________ before the tidal waves came. SAFE 44. We have a large garden. We often eat __________ vegetables. HOME 45. I am never __________ to finish any DIY projects I start. ABLILTY Question IV. Find and correct the mistakes in the following sentences (5 points) 46. This text is too long for me to read it. 47. I can't get used to doing so difficult exercises. 48. The kitchen is too small for me to cook. 49. The child ran fastly to get to school. 50. Mark ran away avoid punishing him Part D: READING (30.0 points) Question I. Read the following passage, then fill in each gap with ONE suitable word. (10.0 points) Hoa Binh and Thanh Hoa are two main provinces (51) __________ there are more than 1.4 million Muong people (52) __________. They speak Muong language which belongs to the Mon - Khmer group. However, some of them (53) __________ know Kinh language. They cultivate mainly wet rice on terraced land, watered by small brooks. They also (54) __________ handicrafts and utilize forest products such as mushrooms, dried fungus, ammonium to improve their living condition. Men dress (55) __________ Indigo pajama and women wear skirts with many colorful patterns knitted on. The Muong build (56) __________ houses on stilts with 4-roof architecture, which are about six feet off the ground. They are wooden houses in the shade of a big trees, huddling against the mountain, and looking out on their vast rice fields. (57) __________, it is convenient for their living and farming. The Muong follow traditional religious animism, which means that they believe (58) __________ non-living objects have spirits. They build the altars in their houses to worship ancestral spirits and other supernatural spirits. One of their (59) __________ important festivals is "Going to the fields Ceremony" where they perform traditional dance forms and send their (60) __________ for good crops. They also drink wine and enjoy special foods. Question II. Read the passage and choose the most suitable word from the ones given below to fill in each gap. Write A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet (10.0 points). Marrakech Where can you go in January for almost guaranteed sunshine without travelling for most of the day to get there? The answer is Marrakech in Morocco, a four-hour (61) __________ from Britain, where the average temperature is a pleasant 66°F.