Tiêu đề RECALLS 5 (NP2) - STUDENT COPY ✅

RECALLS EXAMINATION 5 NURSING PRACTICE II CARE OF HEALTHY / AT RISK MOTHER AND CHILD MAY 2025 Philippine Nurse Licensure Examination Review GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS: 1. This test questionnaire contains 100 test questions 2. Shade only one (1) box for each question on your answer sheets. Two or more boxes shaded will invalid your answer. 3. AVOID ERASURES. 4. Detach one (1) answer sheet from the bottom of your Examinee ID/Answer Sheet Set. 5. Write the subject title “NURSING PRACTICE II” on the box provided Situation: Developmental milestones are a fundamental aspect of pediatric nursing, serving as a key indicator of a child's growth and development. As a registered nurse working in the pediatric ward, it is essential to have a comprehensive understanding of the milestones specific to each age group to assess, monitor, and support the child's developmental progress effectively. 1. The most rapid period of growth occurs in which age group? A. Adult B. Toddler C. Adolescent D. Middle-aged male 2. Nurse Haru is taking care of Hannah, a 2-day-old infant who was recently admitted to the ICU after her abdominal surgery. What nursing intervention would meet the developmental needs of this patient? A. Giving her a pacifier B. Putting a black-and-white fabric over Hannah’s crib C. Providing a teddy bear to soothe her D. Warming Hannah’s formula before feeding her 3. Nurse Haru is teaching Chacha’s parent how to prevent accidents while caring for their 6-month-old infant. What ability should be emphasized about the infant’s motor development? A. Sits up B. Rolls over C. Crawls short distances D. Stands while holding on to furniture 4. The parents of Liam, a 2-year-old child tell the nurse that they are having difficulty disciplining their child. What is the nurse’s most appropriate response? A. “Your child is at a difficult age; we cannot do anything about it.” B. “Tell me more about your difficulty.” C. “It’s important to be consistent with your efforts.” D. “I know, right? That’s why this age is called terrible twos.” 5. The mother observes that Martin, a 6-month-old infant, is startled by a loud noise but does not turn in the direction of the sound. How should the nurse interpret the mother’s report? A. “Your child may have vision deficits.” B. “Your child may have hearing loss.” C. “Your child may have a low-normal hearing age.” D. “Your child is developmentally appropriate.” Situation: The nurse is conducting health teaching for a group of adolescent females in a community setting about the menstrual cycle. 6. Which of the following hormones are secreted by the pituitary gland in response to the stimulation of GnRH? I. Luteinizing Hormone II. Estrogen III. Progesterone IV. Follicle-stimulating Hormone V. Oxytocin A. I, IV B. I, V C. II, IV D. I, III 7. Hanni, a 16-year old student, asked Nurse Nini what is the purpose of corpus luteum. What is the correct response by Nurse Nini? A. “The corpus luteum ruptures and releases an ovum into the peritoneal cavity.” B. “The corpus luteum is responsible for secreting estrogen and progesterone.” C. “The secretion of FSH by the corpus luteum stimulates growth of follicles.” D. “The corpus luteum is responsible for secreting luteinizing hormone.” 8. Ideally, implantation of a fertilized egg should occur during which phase of the menstrual cycle? A. Proliferative Phase B. Menstrual Phase C. Secretory Phase D. Ovulation Phase 9. Which phase occurs when the endometrium breaks down because of the decreased levels of estrogen and progesterone? A. Proliferative Phase B. Menstrual Phase C. Secretory Phase D. Ovulation Phase 10. During this phase, the estrogen level is high and the progesterone level is low. A. Proliferative Phase B. Menstrual Phase C. Secretory Phase D. Ovulation Phase Situation: Nurses must possess a thorough understanding of the legal implications and cultural appropriateness of care when providing services to individual patients. 11. Audrey started working abroad as soon as she gave birth to her daughter. She is concerned as to how consent should be given for procedures for her child. What is the best response to reassure Audrey? A. “You can be contacted via telephone or e-mail for the consent.” B. “Informed consent is only needed for procedures that will cause severe pain.” C. “The hospital can omit the informed consent if the parent is not present with the child.” D. “Informed consent is not needed at all.” 12. Nurse Liam has observed that Nurse Zayn administered the wrong dose of medication to a pediatric patient. However, he decided to not report the incident because Nurse Zayn is his friend. What could he be charged with if something happens with the patient and the parents decide to sue? 1 | Page Prepared by: ENCARNACION, JESIKAH DE JESUS, JERICHO


D. Babinski’s sign 43. The nurse observes that the infant’s eyes appear to be deviated downwards, showing the sclera above the iris. This is documented as: A. Strabismus B. Papilledema C. “Setting sun” eyes D. Ataxia 44. Which of the following surgical interventions is used to treat hydrocephalus by diverting excess CSF? A. Craniotomy B. Ventriculoperitoneal shunt C. Laminectomy D. Myringotomy 45. Postoperatively, the nurse is monitoring the infant for signs of shunt malfunction. Which of the following findings in an infant would indicate a potential shunt malfunction? A. Increased appetite and weight gain. B. Decreased head circumference. C. Lethargy, poor feeding, and a high, shrill cry. D. Regular bowel movements and decreased urine output Situation: A 7-year-old child with a known history of sickle cell anemia is admitted to the hospital with complaints of severe pain in the arms, legs and abdomen. The child is also experiencing fever and is noted to be pale and fatigued. 46. Based on the information provided, which of the following is the primary cause of the child’s symptoms in sickle cell anemia? A. An overproduction of normal red blood cells B. A deficiency in white blood cells C. The presence of abnormally shaped red blood cells causing obstruction D. A decrease in iron levels 47. The child’s parents ask about the inheritance of sickle cell anemia. Which statement by the nurse would be most accurate? A. "It is caused by a chromosomal abnormality." B. "It is inherited as an autosomal recessive trait." C. "It is caused by a viral infection." D. "It is inherited as an autosomal dominant trait." 48. The nurse is preparing the child for a screening test for sickle cell anemia. Which test would the nurse likely use? A. Complete blood count (CBC) B. Sickledex test (sickle turbidity test) C. Bone marrow aspiration D. Urinalysis 49. The child is experiencing an acute exacerbation of their condition. Which term best describes this situation? A. Chronic illness B. Vaso-occlusive crisis C. Remission phase D. Hematopoietic crisis 50. The nurse is teaching the parents about factors that can cause the child's sickling crisis. Which of the following factors should the nurse include in the teaching? A. Regular physical exercise B. Excessive intake of iron-rich foods C. Conditions that increase the need for oxygen or alter its transport D. Low altitude environments with plenty of oxygen Situation: You are assessing Marie, a 24-year-old woman, who is pregnant with her 5 th child. 51. Upon interviewing Marie, she mentioned that she gave birth to her first child at 39 weeks, her second child at 35 weeks, her third child at 40 weeks, and her fourth child at 36 weeks. Four of her children are alive. She also had an ectopic pregnancy when she was 18 years old. What is Marie’s OB score? A. 5 2114 B. 5 2214 C. 4 2241 D. 4 2224 52. Marie does not know her LMP. During the physical assessment, the fundus is palpable as a firm globular sphere between the symphysis pubis and the umbilicus. You know that Marie’s pregnancy is how many weeks? A. 12 weeks B. 14 weeks C. 16 weeks D. 20 weeks 53. Based on her age of gestation, when should Marie go back to the clinic for another prenatal visit? A. Next week B. After 2 weeks C. Next month D. Tomorrow 54. Marie asked you, “how can I involve my boyfriend with my pregnancy? It’s his first time going through this.” Your best response would be? A. “Weh? Bagong boyfriend mo?” B. “Maaari mo siyang isama tuwing magpapa-ultrasound ka para sabay ninyong makita si baby.” C. “Depende sakaniya iyan, kayong dalawa na ang magusap tungkol diyan.” D. “Sa tingin ko ‘wag mo nalang siya isama.” 55. You are reviewing Marie’s health record. While doing so, you asked Marie to clarify and confirm her surgical history. You know that asking about past surgery is relevant during a prenatal visit is important because? A. Abdominal incisions are associated with potential uterine rupture B. Adhesions from surgery could limit uterine growth C. Previous surgical experience means that Marie is comfortable to undergo CS D. Previous use of anesthetics is a risk factor for preterm labor. Situation: A pregnant client at 11 weeks gestation is scheduled for a transvaginal ultrasound. 56. What is the primary purpose of a transvaginal ultrasound at this stage of pregnancy? A. To assess fetal movement B. To determine the sex of the fetus C. To check the length of the cervix D. To evaluate placental function 57. What preparation is required for this procedure? A. The client needs to drink water to fill the bladder. B. The client needs to empty the bladder. C. The client needs to fast for 12 hours. D. No specific preparation is mentioned for a transvaginal ultrasound. 58. The client expresses concern about the safety of the procedure. What is the appropriate response? A. "There is a slight risk of infection." B. "There is a small chance of miscarriage." C. "The test presents no known risks to you or your baby." D. "We will monitor you closely for any complications." 59. If the client were undergoing an abdominal ultrasound instead of a transvaginal, what would be a typical preparation? A. Emptying the bladder. B. Drinking water to fill the bladder. C. Fasting for 8 hours. D. No specific preparation is needed. 60. Beyond cervical assessment, what else can ultrasonography be used for during pregnancy? A. Outlining and identifying fetal and birthing parent structures, confirming gestational age and estimated date of delivery, and evaluating amniotic fluid volume. B. Detecting fetal movement only. C. Determining the sex of the fetus only. D. Checking the fetal heart rate only. Situation: A client at 32 weeks gestation is undergoing a nonstress test (NST). 61. What is the primary purpose of the nonstress test? A. To determine the presence of genetic abnormalities. B. To assess placental function and oxygenation. 4 | Page Prepared by: ENCARNACION, JESIKAH DE JESUS, JERICHO