Tiêu đề RECALLS 5 (NP5) - STUDENT COPY ✅

1 | Page Prepared by: ENCARNACION, JESIKAH DE JESUS, JERICHO RECALLS EXAMINATION 5 NURSING PRACTICE V CARE OF CLIENTS WITH PHYSIOLOGIC AND PSYCHOSOCIAL ALTERATIONS (PART C) MAY 2025 Philippine Nurse Licensure Examination Review GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS: 1. This test questionnaire contains 100 test questions 2. Shade only one (1) box for each question on your answer sheets. Two or more boxes shaded will invalid your answer. 3. AVOID ERASURES. 4. Detach one (1) answer sheet from the bottom of your Examinee ID/Answer Sheet Set. 5. Write the subject title “NURSING PRACTICE V” on the box provided Situation: The senses—sight, hearing, touch, taste, and smell—play a crucial role in how we interact with the world around us. Accurate assessment and understanding of sensory function, including both vision and hearing, are essential for nurses to provide holistic patient care. The following questions explore key aspects of these two senses and related assessments, including visual acuity testing, examination techniques, auditory assessments, and diagnostic procedures. 1. A patient reports blurred vision and difficulty reading. Which of the following assessments is the MOST appropriate initial step for the nurse to take? A. Administer eye drops to relieve dryness. B. Assess the patient's visual acuity using a Snellen chart. C. Inspect the external eye for any abnormalities. D. Refer the patient to an ophthalmologist immediately. 2. A patient's visual acuity is documented as OD: 20/40 and OS: 20/20. How should the nurse interpret this finding? A. The patient has normal vision in both eyes. B. The patient has better vision in the right eye than the left eye. C. The patient has better vision in the left eye than the right eye. D. The patient is legally blind in the right eye. 3. During an external eye examination, the nurse observes ptosis of the right eyelid. What does this finding suggest? A. Entropion B. Ectropion C. Drooping of the eyelid D. Nystagmus 4. A patient is scheduled for a slit-lamp examination. What is the PRIMARY purpose of this diagnostic procedure? A. To measure intraocular pressure. B. To visualize the retina and optic nerve. C. To examine the structures of the eye under high magnification. D. To assess the patient's visual field. 5. During a direct ophthalmoscopy, the examiner observes a "cotton-wool spot" on the patient's retina. What does this finding suggest? A. Normal aging process B. Macular degeneration C. Hypertension or diabetes D. Cataracts 6. A patient is diagnosed with homonymous hemianopsia due to a stroke. What does this visual deficit mean? A. The patient has double vision. B. The patient has blindness in half of the visual field in both eyes. C. The patient has difficulty seeing at night. D. The patient has a loss of peripheral vision. 7. Which of the following assessments is MOST important when caring for a patient with homonymous hemianopsia? A. Placing objects on the patient's affected side. B. Approaching the patient from their intact side. C. Encouraging the patient to close their affected eye. D. Limiting the patient's mobility. 8. A patient is scheduled for tonometry. What is the PRIMARY purpose of this procedure? A. To assess for cataracts. B. To measure intraocular pressure. C. To examine the optic nerve. D. To evaluate visual acuity. 9. A patient with age-related macular degeneration (AMD) is instructed on how to use an Amsler grid. What is the PRIMARY purpose of this tool? A. To assess for changes in peripheral vision. B. To evaluate the ability to distinguish colors. C. To detect distortions or blind spots in the central visual field. D. To measure intraocular pressure. 10. Which of the following BEST describes the primary function of rods in the eye? A. Color vision in bright light B. Sharp, detailed vision C. Vision in low light conditions D. Depth perception 11. A patient is diagnosed with glaucoma. The nurse understands that the primary pathophysiological mechanism leading to optic nerve damage in this condition involves: A. Decreased production of aqueous humor. B. Obstruction of the trabecular meshwork, impairing aqueous humor outflow. C. Inflammation of the ciliary body, reducing aqueous humor production. D. Degeneration of the lens, affecting light transmission to the retina. 12. Which of the following factors is considered a significant risk factor for the development of glaucoma? A. Hyperopia (farsightedness) B. History of migraines C. Regular use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) D. Consumption of a diet high in saturated fat * NLE * NCLEX * CGFNS * HAAD * PROMETRICS * DHA * MIDWIFERY * LET * RAD TECH * CRIMINOLOGY * DENTISTRY * PHARMACY *
2 | Page Prepared by: ENCARNACION, JESIKAH DE JESUS, JERICHO 13. A patient with glaucoma is prescribed eye drops. Which instruction is MOST important for the nurse to provide to the patient regarding the administration of these medications? A. "You should instill the drops directly onto your cornea." B. "It's okay to share your eye drops with family members if they have similar eye symptoms." C. "Apply gentle pressure to the inner corner of your eye after instilling the drops." D. "If you miss a dose, double the amount of medication you use the next time." 14. A patient with glaucoma reports experiencing "halos" around lights and decreased peripheral vision. The nurse recognizes that these symptoms are primarily related to: A. Changes in the lens due to aging. B. Damage to the optic nerve. C. Increased intraocular pressure. D. Inflammation of the uvea. 15. The nurse is teaching a patient about the importance of regular eye examinations for glaucoma screening. Which age group should the nurse emphasize as being at increased risk for glaucoma? A. Individuals younger than 20 years old. B. Adults between the ages of 20 and 39. C. Adults older than 40 years old. D. Anyone with a family history of glaucoma, regardless of age. 16. A patient is diagnosed with primary open-angle glaucoma. The nurse understands that a key characteristic differentiating this type of glaucoma from angle-closure glaucoma is: A. The presence of ocular pain and redness. B. The appearance of the anterior chamber angle. C. The rate of visual field loss. D. The response to miotic medications. 17. Which of the following pathophysiological mechanisms is directly related to the development of visual field defects in glaucoma? A. Increased production of aqueous humor, leading to pressure on the cornea. B. Damage to the optic nerve due to elevated intraocular pressure. C. Inflammation of the iris and ciliary body, affecting lens clarity. D. Obstruction of the canal of Schlemm, impairing aqueous humor outflow. 18. A patient with glaucoma is prescribed timolol maleate eye drops. The nurse should include which of the following in patient education about this medication? A. "This medication will cause your pupils to constrict." B. "This medication may decrease your heart rate." C. "This medication can cause your vision to become blurry." D. "This medication should be instilled directly onto your cornea." 19. Which of the following visual changes is MOST characteristic of glaucoma? A. Loss of central vision. B. Blurry vision at all distances. C. Loss of peripheral vision. D. Halos around lights. 20. A patient with narrow-angle glaucoma reports experiencing severe eye pain, nausea, and vomiting. The nurse's priority action is to: A. Administer the prescribed miotic eye drops immediately. B. Prepare the patient for laser iridotomy. C. Notify the healthcare provider promptly. D. Educate the patient on the long-term management of glaucoma. 21. Which of the following is a PRIMARY goal of glaucoma treatment? A. To reverse existing optic nerve damage. B. To prevent further optic nerve damage. C. To restore lost vision. D. To eliminate the need for eye drops. 22. A patient is scheduled for laser trabeculoplasty. The nurse explains that this procedure aims to lower intraocular pressure by: A. Creating a new drainage channel for aqueous humor. B. Opening the intratrabecular spaces to improve aqueous humor outflow. C. Removing a portion of the iris to widen the anterior chamber angle. D. Decreasing the production of aqueous humor. 23. Which of the following statements about glaucoma medication adherence is MOST accurate? A. Most patients find it easy to adhere to their prescribed eye drop regimen. B. Poor adherence to glaucoma medication is a common problem. C. There are few negative consequences associated with missing doses of glaucoma medication. D. Patients should only use their eye drops when they experience symptoms. 24. A patient with glaucoma is being discharged home. Which of the following instructions is MOST important for the nurse to include in the discharge teaching? A. "You should only use your eye drops when you notice your vision is blurry." B. "It is important to keep all of your follow-up appointments with your ophthalmologist." C. "You can stop taking your eye drops if your eye pressure is normal at your next appointment." D. "You do not need to inform your other healthcare providers about your glaucoma medications." 25. A patient with glaucoma asks the nurse, "Will I eventually go blind from this disease?" Which of the following is the MOST appropriate response by the nurse? A. "Yes, glaucoma always leads to blindness if it is not treated." B. "With consistent treatment and monitoring, we can work to preserve your vision." C. "You shouldn't worry about that right now. Just focus on taking your medication." D. "That depends on how high your eye pressure gets." 26. A patient reports seeing "floaters" and a "curtain" coming across their vision in one eye. The nurse recognizes that these symptoms are suggestive of which eye condition? A. Cataracts B. Glaucoma C. Macular degeneration D. Retinal detachment 27. Which type of retinal detachment is MOST commonly associated with high myopia (nearsightedness) and aphakia (absence of the natural lens)? A. Rhegmatogenous B. Traction C. Exudative D. Combined rhegmatogenous and traction 28. A patient with diabetic retinopathy develops a traction retinal detachment. The nurse understands that the underlying cause of this type of detachment involves: A. Accumulation of fluid under the retina. B. Formation of fibrous scar tissue pulling on the retina. C. Tears or holes in the retina due to weakened tissue. D. Inflammation of the choroid leading to retinal separation. 29. Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason why retinal detachment is considered an ocular emergency?

4 | Page Prepared by: ENCARNACION, JESIKAH DE JESUS, JERICHO A. Trigeminal neuralgia is an early symptom of MS. B. There is a higher incidence of trigeminal neuralgia in people with MS. C. The treatment for trigeminal neuralgia differs significantly in people with MS. D. MS can exacerbate the pain of trigeminal neuralgia. 45. Which medication is commonly used to treat the pain associated with trigeminal neuralgia? A. Acetaminophen B. Carbamazepine C. Ibuprofen D. Oxycodone 46. What is a PRIMARY nursing consideration when administering carbamazepine to a patient with trigeminal neuralgia? A. Monitoring for gastrointestinal upset. B. Assessing for signs of bone marrow depression. C. Educating about potential hair loss. D. Instructing about the risk of seizures. 47. A patient taking carbamazepine for trigeminal neuralgia reports experiencing dizziness and drowsiness. What is the nurse's BEST action? A. Instruct the patient to stop taking the medication immediately. B. Advise the patient that these are expected side effects and will subside over time. C. Hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider. D. Reduce the dose of the medication. 48. Which of the following activities might a patient with trigeminal neuralgia avoid due to the risk of triggering pain? A. Exercising B. Sleeping C. Shaving D. Reading 49. A patient with trigeminal neuralgia is exploring complementary therapies. Which therapy would be MOST important for the nurse to discuss with the patient regarding safety and potential interactions with prescribed medications? A. Acupuncture B. Massage therapy C. Herbal supplements D. Yoga 50. A patient with trigeminal neuralgia is being managed with carbamazepine. Which of the following instructions is MOST important for the nurse to provide regarding this medication? Select all that apply. 1. "Take this medication on an empty stomach to enhance absorption." 2. "Avoid grapefruit juice while taking this medication." 3. "You may experience some hair loss while taking this medication." 4. "Report any signs of rash or unusual bleeding to your healthcare provider." A. 4, 3, 2, 1 B. 3, 2, 1 C. 3, 2 D. 2 51. Which of the following interventions are appropriate for a patient experiencing an acute exacerbation of trigeminal neuralgia pain? Select all that apply. 1. Provide the patient with a soft diet. 2. Encourage the patient to brush their teeth vigorously to maintain oral hygiene. 3. Administer prescribed pain medication promptly. 4. Apply a cold compress to the affected side of the face. 5. Instruct the patient to avoid touching or rubbing the trigger points. A. 1 and 2 B. 2 and 4 C. 1, 3, and 5 D. 3 and 4 Situation:Bell's palsy, characterized by facial muscle weakness or paralysis, is a condition affecting the seventh cranial nerve.Understanding its impact and appropriate nursing care is essential for patient well- being. 52. Which of the following BEST describes the pathophysiology of Bell's palsy? A. Bacterial infection of the facial nerve. B. Degeneration of the facial nerve due to aging. C. Unilateral inflammation of the seventh cranial nerve. D. Compression of the facial nerve by a tumor. 53. Which of the following interventions is important for the nurse to include in the care of a patient with Bell's palsy? A. Administering antiviral medications. B. Protecting the eye from injury. C. Providing emotional support and reassurance. D. All of the above. 54. A patient with Bell's palsy reports experiencing excessive tearing in the affected eye. The nurse understands that this symptom is likely due to: A. Increased tear production by the lacrimal gland. B. Inability to close the eyelid completely, affecting tear drainage. C. Inflammation of the conjunctiva. D. Damage to the optic nerve. 55. A patient with Bell's palsy is prescribed prednisone. The nurse educates the patient that the PRIMARY purpose of this medication is to: A. Reduce inflammation and edema of the facial nerve. B. Prevent viral reactivation. C. Relieve facial pain. D. Promote muscle strength. 56. Which of the following self-care measures would be MOST appropriate for a patient with Bell's palsy to prevent corneal injury? A. Wearing an eye patch at all times. B. Instilling lubricating eye drops and using a protective shield at night. C. Gently massaging the affected side of the face with lotion. D. Avoiding exposure to cold drafts. Situation. Bell's palsy, characterized by facial muscle weakness or paralysis, is a condition affecting the seventh cranial nerve. Understanding its impact and appropriate nursing care is essential for patient well- being. 56. A patient diagnosed with Bell's palsy reports difficulty closing their affected eye. Which of the following complications is the patient MOST at risk for? A. Cataracts B. Glaucoma C. Corneal injury D. Retinal detachment 57. A patient with Bell's palsy is prescribed prednisone. What is the PRIMARY therapeutic effect of this medication in this condition? A. To reduce pain. B. To fight a viral infection. C. To decrease inflammation. D. To prevent muscle atrophy. 58. Which of the following statements by a patient with Bell's palsy indicates a need for further teaching? A. "I will wear an eye patch at night."