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TOP RANK REVIEW ACADEMY, INC. Page 1 | REFRESHER PHASE DIAGNOSTIC EXAMINATION NURSING PRACTICE II FEB 2026 Philippine Nurse Licensure Examination Review SITUATION 1 – You have been doing follow up care for Bendita and she has developed trust in you as her nurse 1. Bendita tells you that she has been feeling contractions, but they stop when she walks around. These contractions are called A. Tetanic B. Braxton Hicks C. Premature Labor D. Dysfunctional 2. Later on in her pregnancy, you notice that Bendita’s blood pressure is lower when she rests on her back than when she is on her side. You explain that this is because: A. There is pressure on her arteries in the side- lying position B. The fetus may compress the major vessels when she is supine C. She is in early labor D. She is having back labor 3. You are planning care for Bendita whose membranes have ruptured; you recognize that the client’s risk is increased for A. Cervical lacerations B. Supine hypotension C. Precipitous labor D. Intrauterine infection 4. When caring for a laboring client with epidural anesthesia, you should be alert for which complication? A. Hypervolemia B. Hypotension C. Hyperemia D. Hyponatremia 5. Bendita receives a narcotic pain medication 45 minutes prior to giving birth. What action by the nurse is appropriate? A. Observe for signs of hypothermia in the newborn B. Evaluate the newborn’s respiratory efforts C. Determine the mother’s level of pain immediately postpartum D. Observe for signs of maternal hypotension SITUATION 2 – You are working as a public health nurse and you had your regular barangay health station visits. The following questions apply. 6. As you were making your community-rounds you noted in one barangay health station that the midwife- on-duty had the following cases at hand and you assisted her. Which of the following medication is indicated for hookworm infections? A. Albendazole B. Benzylpenicillin C. Chloroquine D. Gentamicin 7. You determined that you needed to reinforce the initial health teachings given by the midwife-on-duty regarding the administration of Tetracycline Eye Ointment when the mother stated: A. “I should wear sterile gloves when administering the medications.” B. “I will continue the treatment until redness is gone.” C. “I can use clean cloth to wipe the eye.” D. “I should wash my hands before and after administering the medication.” 8. The treatment of a child for prevention of low blood sugar includes giving breastmilk, breastmilk substitute or sugar water. Prior to administration, you assessed that the child is not able to swallow. What should be your next action? A. Give 5 ml/kg of 10% dextrose solution over a few minutes with doctor’s order B. Administer the sugar water C. Give 50 ml milk or sugar water by a nasogastric tube with doctor’s order D. Ask the mother to breastfeed the child 9. You are giving extra fluids for treatment of diarrhea. If the child is not exclusively breastfed, all of the following can be given, EXCEPT; A. Soup B. Orange juice C. ORS D. Rice water 10. While explaining to the mother the need for extra fluids to treat diarrhea, you are aware that a child up to 2-years old should be given how much fluids after each loose stool? A. 100 to 200 ml B. 1000 ml C. 50 to 100 ml D. 500 ml Situation: The birth process affects the holistic aspects of the mother, to include physiologic changes to both the mother and the fetus. Nursing students are now assigned at the OB Admitting Section of the National Hospital. 11. A nurse is performing an assessment of a pregnant woman who is at 28 weeks of gestation. The nurse measures the fundal height in centimeters and expects the finding to be which of the following? The student nurse correctly identifies: A. 22 cm B. 30 cm C. 36 cm D. 40 cm 12. A nursing student is preparing a class on the process of fetal circulation. The instructor asks the student specifically to describe the process through the umbilical cord. Which of the following statements from the student is correct? A. “The one artery caries freshly oxygenated blood and nutrient-rich blood back from the placental to the fetus” B. “The two arteries carry freshly oxygenated blood and nutrient-rich blood back from * NLE * NCLEX * HAAD * PROMETRICS * DHA * MIDWIFERY * LET * RAD TECH * CRIMINOLOGY * DENTISTRY * PHARMACY * MED TECH
TOP RANK REVIEW ACADEMY, INC. Page 2 | the placental to the fetus.” C. “The two arteries in the umbilical cord carry blood that is high in carbon dioxide and other waste products away from the fetus to the placenta.” D. “The three arteries carry freshly oxygenated blood and nutrient-rich blood back from the placental to the fetus.” 13. Which of the following are not presumptive sign/ symptom of pregnancy? A. Amenorrhea B. Urinary changes C. Softening of the uterus D. Nausea/ vomiting 14. Of the following probable signs of pregnancy, which describes the bluish discoloration of the vagina? A. Chadwick’s sign B. Goodel’s sign C. Hegar’s sign D. Ballotement 15. A nurse is reviewing the record of a client who has just been told that a pregnancy test is positive. The physician has documented the presence of Goodell’s sign. The staff nurse asks the student nurse and she states that this is: A. A softening of the cervix B. The presence of fetal movement C. The presence of HCG in the urine D. A soft blowing sound that corresponds to the maternal pulse during auscultation of the uterus. Situation: A G1P0 mother went to the health center for a check-up. You are the nurse assigned. 16. The mother asks the nurse when she will be able to begin feeling the fetal movements. You respond by telling the mother that fetal movements will be noted between which of the following weeks of gestation? A. 6 and 8 B. 8 and 10 C. 10 and 12 D. 16 and 20 17. The mother asks about gestational diabetes, as she has familial history and was worried about her pregnancy. Which statement by the client indicates a further need for education? A. “I need to be in a diabetic diet” B. “I will perform glucose monitoring at home” C. “I need to avoid exercise because of the negative effects of insulin production” D. “I need to be aware of any infections and report signs of infection immediately” 18. History revealed that there is a history of twins in the family and the client was asking about the possibility of having twins as well. The nurse replies: A. Monozygotic twins result from fertilization of two ova by different sperm. B. Monozygotic twins occur by chance regardless of race or heredity. C. Dizygotic twins are usually of the same sex. D. Dizygotic twins occur more often in primigravid than in multigravid clients. 19. Sheila, the client’s mother, was worried that her daughter will have an enormous amount of blood loss during delivery. As a nurse, the best response would be: A. The maximum blood loss considered within normal limits is 500 mL.” B. “The minimum blood loss considered within normal limits is 1,000 mL.” C. “Blood loss during a delivery is rarely estimated unless there is a hemorrhage.” D. “It would be very unusual if you lost more than 100 mL of blood during the delivery.” 20. During the next visit, the client attended a childbirth preparation class and tells the nurse that her lower back has been aching. Which of the following exercises are appropriate for the client? A. Pelvic rocking B. Tailor sitting C. Deep breathing D. Squatting 21. Syphilis is a chronic disease cause by Treponema palladium. Which of the following is not true about syphilis? A. Transmission is by physical contact with syphilitic lesions, which are usually found on the skin, mucous membranes of the mouth, or genitals. B. The infection may not cause abortion or premature labor. C. It may be passed to the fetus on the fourth month of pregnancy as congenital syphilis. D. A serum test (Veneral Disease Research Laboratory or rapid plasma reagin) for syphilis on the first prenatal visit, and repeated on the 36 th week of gestation. 22. Gonorrhea is an infection caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae that causes inflammation of mucous membranes of the genital and urinary tracts. Which of the following is true? A. Transmission of the organism is by airborne. B. Infection is not transmissible to a newborn. C. It may cause Opthalmianeonatorum. D. It is usually symptomatic, and vaginal discharge is common. 23. A clinic nurse is performing a psychosocial assessment of Alice. Which assessment finding indicates to the nurse that the client is at high risk for contracting human immunodeficiency virus? A. A client who has a history of intravenous drug use. B. A client who has a significant other who is heterosexual C. A client who has a history of sexually transmitted diseases. D. A client who has had 1 sexual partner for the past10 years. 24. When Alice was in her third trimester, she was admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of sever preeclampsia. A nurse monitors for complications associated with the diagnosis and assesses the client for: A. Enlargement of the breasts B. Complaints of feeling hot when the room is cool. C. Periods of fetal movement followed by quiet periods. D. Evidence of bleeding, such as in the gums, bruises, petechiae, and purpura. 25. Alice gave birth to a stillborn infant. After the delivery, the family remained together, holding and touching the infant. Which statement by the nurse would further assist the family in their assist the family in their initial period of grief? A. “Anong pwede kong gawin para saiyo?” B. “Ngayon may anghel ka na sa langit” C. “Huwag kang mag-alala, wala tayong
TOP RANK REVIEW ACADEMY, INC. Page 3 | hindi nagawa” D. “Gagawa tayo ng paraan na mapauwi ka ng maaga para di mo na maalala ang mga pinagdaanan mo dito” 26. Which of the following is a proper description for Placenta Accreta? A. Premature separation of the placenta of the uterine wall after the twentieth week of gestation and before the fetus is delivered B. The placenta penetrates the uterine muscle itself C. An abnormally adherent placenta D. Placenta goes all the way through the uterus. 27. A nurse in the labor room is preparing to care for a client with hypertonic uterine contractions. The nurse is told that the client is experiencing uncoordinated contractions that are erratic in their frequency, duration, and intensity. The priority nursing intervention in caring for the client is to: A. Provide pain relief measures B. Prepare the client for an amniotomy C. Promote ambulation every 30 minutes D. Monitor the oxytocin infusion closely. 28. Jenny, a nurse, is performing an initial assessment on a client who has just been told that a pregnancy test is positive. Which assessment finding would indicate that the client is at risk for preterm labor? A. The client is a 36- year old primigravida B. The client has a history of cardiac disease C. The client’s haemoglobin level is 13.5 g/dL D. The client is a 20year old primigravida of average weight and height. 29. A nurse in a labor room is monitoring a client with dysfunctional labor for signs of fetal or maternal compromise. Which of the following assessment findings would alert the nurse to a compromise? A. Maternal fatigue B. Coordinated uterine contractions C. Progressive changes in the cervix D. Persistent non-reassuring fetal heart rate 30. A client in labor is transported to the delivery room and prepared for ta caesarean delivery. After the client is transferred to the delivery room table, a nurse places her in: A. Supine position with a wedge under the right hip B. Trendelenburg’s position with the legs in stirrups. C. Prone position with the legs separated and elevated D. Semi-Fowler’s position with a pillow under the knees. SITUATION: Grounded theory is a general inductive method that is not inextricably linked to a particular theoretical perspective or type of data. Grounded theory researchers seek to understand the actions in a substantive area from the perspectives of those involved. 31. The nurse researcher comprehends that people who pioneered studies in grounded theory includes the following apart from? A. Glaser & Strauss B. Strauss & Corbin C. Corbin& Tanner D. None of the above 32. Coding in Glaserian grounded theory approach is used to conceptualize data into patterns. The nurse- researcher incorrectly identifies conceptualization of the substance of the topic under study as: A. Substantive codes B. Open codes C. Selective codes D. Theoretical codes 33. In-vivo codes are directly derived from the language of the substantive area. The nurse-researcher correctly identifies these codes as: A. Level I B. Level II C. Level III D. Level IV 34. In grounded theory approach, data analysis employs: A. Domain analysis B. Constant comparative analysis C. Componential analysis D. Taxonomic analysis 35. The six (6) C’s in families of theoretical codes for grounded theory analysis developed by Glaser (1978) excludes: A. Contingencies B. Covariances C. Continuum D. Consequences 36. The nurse is teaching a postpartum client about breast-feeding. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? A. Prenatal vitamins should be discontinued. B. The diet should include additional fruits. C. Organic, hypoallergenic soap should be used to cleanse the breasts. D. Galactagogues should be avoided. 37. A nurse is planning to care for a post-partum client who had a vaginal delivery 2 hours ago. The client had a 4cm midline episiotomy and has several haemorrhoids. What is the priority nursing diagnosis for this client? A. Acute pain B. Disturbed body image C. Impaired urinary elimination D. Risk for imbalanced fluid volume. 38. A nurse is caring for four 1-day postpartum clients. Which client has an abnormal finding that would require further intervention? A. The client with mild afterpains rated 4/10 B. The client with a pulse rate of 70 beats per minute C. The client with colostrum discharge from both breasts D. The client with lochia that is red and has a foul smelling color. 39. Robi, a nurse, is providing postpartum instructions to a client who will be breast- feeding her newborn. Which of the following determines that the client understood the instructions? Select all that apply. 1. “magsusuot ako ng bra na may suporta” 2. “Nakakasama ang pag-inom ng alak para sa aking gatas-ina” 3. “Ang kape ay maaaring makakapagpababa ng aking gatas-ina” 4. “Sisimulan ko ang pag-inom ng estrogen pills pag karating sa amingbahay” 5. “Alam ko na kung ang aking suso ay panandaliang lumaki, ihihinto ko ang pagpapasuso”
TOP RANK REVIEW ACADEMY, INC. Page 4 | 6. “Iinom ako ng maraming tubig upang maparami ang aking gatas-ina” A. 1, 6, 5, 3 B. 1, 2, 3, 6 C. 2, 3, 4, 5 D. 3, 4, 5, 6 40. A prolapsed umbilical cord is when the umbilical cord is displaced between the presenting part and the amnion or protruding through the cervix, causing compression of the cord and compromising fetal circulation. Which of the following assessment findings are not indicative of a prolapsed cord? A. The client has a feeling that something is coming through the vagina. B. Umbilical cord is visible or palpable C. Sweating, cool and damp skin D. Fetal heart monitor shows variable decelerations or bradycardia after rupture of the membranes. Situation: Joshua is a public health nurse assigned in the family planning clinic. Rose, a 19 year old client reported that she has been sexually active for one year and is asking about family planning methods. 41. Nurse Joshua talks to the client regarding Natural Family Planning Methods which are based on scientific facts on fertility. Which of the following are not natural methods of FP? A. Sympto-Hormonal Method (SMH) B. Sympto-Thermal Method (STM) C. Cervical Mucus Method (CMM) D. Modified Pomeroy Method (MPM) 42. BBT is another natural FP method. Which of the following is not true about this method? A. The basal body temperature of a woman is higher before ovulation, until it decreases to a lower level beginning around the time of ovulation. B. After her ovulation, her BBT typically rises slightly and stays in a slightly higher range until her next period begins. This slight increase in BBT from ovulation until menstruation is a sign that she ovulated during this cycle. C. The BBT of a woman is lower before her ovulation, until it rises to a higher level beginning around the time of ovulation. D. Women who are able to have at least 3 hours of continuous sleep every day at almost the same time can use BBT. 43. The Ovulation Method or “OM” entails having to observe the changes in color, consistency and amount of discharge. Which of the following is not true? A. During infertile days, the uterine cervix secretes a discharge which is thick and scanty in which sperm survival is poor. B. On fertile days, discharge is thin and copious. This type of discharge is conducive for sperm penetration and survival and subsequent fertilization. C. During the woman’s fertile period, she feels dry and sees stretchy and clear discharge. D. During the woman’s fertile period, the discharge nourishes and provides a channel for sperm to reach the egg. 44. CycleBeads™ represents the woman’s menstrual cycle. Each bead represents a day of her cycle. Which of the following is true? A. The RED bead marks the first day of menstrual period. B. The WHTE beads represent the days when the woman can have intercourse and not become a. pregnant. C. The BROWN beads are the days when a woman can become pregnant. D. The CHOCOLATE BROWN bead helps you know if your cycle is less than 24 days long. 45. Nurse Josh stated that the Lactational Amenorrhea Method (LAM) was not applicable for Rose. The LAM method: A. Is for non- breastfeeding mothers B. Is for mothers whose menstruation has returned (this does not include the spotting that occurs 56 days post partum) C. Is for mothers whose infant is more than 24 weeks old D. Is considered as a temporary, short-term method. 46. Which of the following is a proper description for Placenta Accreta? A. Premature separation of the placenta of the uterine wall after the twentieth week of gestation and before the fetus is delivered B. The placenta penetrates the uterine muscle itself C. An abnormally adherent placenta D. Placenta goes all the way through the uterus. 47. A nurse in the labor room is preparing to care for a client with hypertonic uterine contractions. The nurse is told that the client is experiencing uncoordinated contractions that are erratic in their frequency, duration, and intensity. The priority nursing intervention in caring for the client is to: A. Provide pain relief measures B. Prepare the client for an amniotomy C. Promote ambulation every 30 minutes D. Monitor the oxytocin infusion closely. 48. Jenny, a nurse, is performing an initial assessment on a client who has just been told that a pregnancy test is positive. Which assessment finding would indicate that the client is at risk for preterm labor? A. The client is a 36- year old primigravida B. The client has a history of cardiac disease C. The client’s haemoglobin level is 13.5 g/dL D. The client is a 20year old primigravida of average weight and height. 49. A nurse in a labor room is monitoring a client with dysfunctional labor for signs of fetal or maternal compromise. Which of the following assessment findings would alert the nurse to a compromise? A. Maternal fatigue B. Coordinated uterine contractions C. Progressive changes in the cervix D. Persistent nonreassuring fetal heart rate 50. A client in labor is transported to the delivery room and prepared for ta caesarean delivery. After the client is transferred to the delivery room table, a nurse places her in: A. Supine position with a wedge under the right hip B. Trendelenburg’s position with the legs in stirrups. C. Prone position with the legs separated and elevated D. Semi-Fowler’s position with a pillow under the knees.

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