Tiêu đề RECALLS 9 (NP4) - STUDENT COPY ✅

3 | Page D. “Reduce dietary fiber to avoid irritation.” 33. A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a patient diagnosed with prerenal acute kidney injury (AKI). Which finding in the patient’s history is most likely related to this condition? A. A recent infection of the kidneys (pyelonephritis) B. Prolonged dehydration C. Bladder cancer D. Kidney stones 34. A patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is on a 40- gram protein diet due to a reduced glomerular filtration rate. Which lab result would most concern the nurse? A. Albumin level of 2.5 g/dL B. Phosphorus level of 5 mg/dL C. Sodium level of 135 mEq/L D. Potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L 35. During a discharge education session, a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) discusses dietary changes to manage sodium intake. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? A. “Cutting out potato chips will probably help me lose weight.” B. “I’ll stop eating bacon with my eggs every morning.” C. “I’ll change how I cook by not adding salt to my meals.” D. “I’m glad I can still eat KFC and Jollibee occasionally.” 36. A nurse is caring for a patient with early-stage chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is prescribed furosemide 40 mg daily. What is the best method for the nurse to evaluate the effectiveness of this medication? A. Record the patient’s weight daily. B. Listen to the patient’s heart and lung sounds. C. Check for abdominal distension. D. Review the patient’s dietary intake. 37. A client has just completed a radioactive iodine uptake test for thyroid assessment. The nurse is providing discharge instructions. Which statement by the nurse is most appropriate? A. “You must stay in isolation until the radiation level in your body decreases.” B. “You can resume all normal activities without any precautions.” C. “Follow special precautions for a few days, such as using separate towels and flushing the toilet twice.” D. “You’ll be given a medication to neutralize the radioactive iodine.” 38. A nurse is teaching a client how to self-administer potassium iodide (Lugol’s solution) before thyroid surgery. Which instruction should the nurse emphasize? A. “Swallow the medication quickly to avoid irritation.” B. “Take the medication on an empty stomach before meals.” C. “Dilute the medication in a glass of fruit juice to improve the taste.” D. “Refrigerate the medication before use to reduce its bitterness.” 39. During an assessment of a client with newly diagnosed Graves’ disease, what characteristic feature would the nurse most likely observe? A. Bulging eyes B. Enlarged nose C. Thickened lips D. Swollen tongue 40. A nurse is caring for a client recovering from a subtotal thyroidectomy. What is the most appropriate intervention to monitor for incisional bleeding? A. Watch for signs of hypovolemic shock. B. Check for dampness behind the client’s neck. C. Remove the dressing to inspect the incision directly. D. Weigh dressing materials after changes. 41. Following a thyroidectomy, a nurse wants to assess for potential laryngeal nerve damage. What is the most appropriate method to evaluate this? A. Ask the client to turn their head from side to side. B. Observe the client while they swallow. C. Inspect for any tracheal deviation. D. Request the client to say “Ah” and listen for voice changes. 42. A nurse is assessing a client with full-thickness burns. Which finding is most consistent with this type of burn? A. Moderate pain due to exposed nerve endings B. Presence of blisters across the burned area C. Edema formation throughout the affected region D. Tissue damage extending into the subcutaneous layer 43. A nurse is monitoring a pediatric client with extensive burns for complications. Which documented finding is most indicative of Curling’s ulcer? A. Absence of bowel sounds B. Positive stool test for occult blood C. Elevated hematocrit levels D. Abdominal distention 44. A nurse witnesses a burn victim running with flames on their clothing. What is the nurse’s immediate priority? A. Apply a clean cloth to the affected areas. B. Extinguish the flames by rolling the victim on the ground. C. Apply ice packs to the burned regions. D. Rub petroleum jelly on the burns. 45. A nurse is evaluating a burn victim with injuries to the head and neck. What is the nurse’s most important action? A. Measure the client’s pulse and blood pressure. B. Monitor for signs of airway obstruction or respiratory distress. C. Identify the client’s emergency contacts. D. Assess the percentage of body surface area affected by the burns. 46. During documentation, the nurse records the appearance of a full-thickness burn. Which description is most accurate? A. Pink with fluid-filled blisters B. Red and extremely painful C. White with a leathery texture D. Mottled and wet 47. A nurse is caring for a 58-year-old client with superficial partial-thickness burns involving the anterior head and neck, front and back of the left arm, front of the right arm, posterior trunk, front and back of the right leg, and back of the left leg. Using the Rule of Nines, what percentage of the TBSA is burned? A. 63% B. 81% C. 72% D. 54% 48. A nurse is caring for a 30-year-old female client with deep partial-thickness burns on the front and back of both legs, the front of the right arm, and the anterior trunk. The client weighs 63 kg. Based on the Parkland Burn Formula, what is the flow rate during the first 8 hours of fluid resuscitation? A. 921 mL/hr B. 938 mL/hr C. 158 mL/hr D. 789 mL/hr 49. A nurse is preparing a client for a fecal occult blood test. Which teaching point should the nurse emphasize to reduce the risk of false positives? A. "This test confirms the presence of colorectal cancer." B. "Avoid consuming red meat and NSAIDs for 48 hours before the test." C. "There’s no need for this test if you plan to have a virtual colonoscopy." D. "This test evaluates your genetic predisposition to colorectal cancer." 50. A nurse assesses a client who has been admitted with severe diarrhea for the past 3 days. The client’s arterial blood gas values are: pH 7.32, PaO2 94 mm Hg, PaCO2 36 mm Hg, and HCO3− 18 mEq/L. Which compensatory mechanism would the nurse expect to observe in this client? A. Decreased respiratory rate B. Increased rate and depth of respirations C. Increased production of bicarbonate by the kidneys D. Increased oxygen saturation levels 51. A nurse assesses a client with chronic kidney disease who reports nausea, headache, and confusion. The client’s arterial blood gas values are: pH 7.28, PaO2 92 mm Hg, PaCO2 38 mm Hg, HCO3− 16 mEq/L.