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1 | Page RECALLS EXAMINATION 8 NURSING PRACTICE III CARE OF CLIENTS WITH PHYSIOLOGIC AND PSYCHOSOCIAL ALTERATIONS (PART A) MAY 2025 Philippine Nurse Licensure Examination Review GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS: 1. This test questionnaire contains 100 test questions 2. Shade only one (1) box for each question on your answer sheets. Two or more boxes shaded will invalid your answer. 3. AVOID ERASURES. 4. Detach one (1) answer sheet from the bottom of your Examinee ID/Answer Sheet Set. 5. Write the subject title “NURSING PRACTICE I” on the box provided 1. Nurse Psalm is assessing a client with a history of atherosclerosis who reports chest pain that occurs during physical exertion and is relieved by rest or sublingual nitroglycerin. Which condition does the nurse suspect? A. Stable angina B. Acute coronary syndrome C. Myocardial infarction D. Prinzmetal angina 2. A client presents with crushing chest pain rated 9/10, lasting 30 minutes, and worsening. Nurse Saint recognizes the client is likely experiencing: A. Stable angina B. Coronary artery disease (CAD) C. Myocardial infarction (MI) D. Atherosclerosis 3. A 50-year-old client with a history of smoking, high blood pressure, and sedentary lifestyle is being assessed. Which modifiable risk factors for peripheral artery disease (PAD) should Nurse Austin prioritize? A. Sedentary lifestyle and high blood pressure B. Smoking and high blood pressure C. Sedentary lifestyle and diet D. Weight and diet 4. Nurse Cohen is preparing to administer 30 mg of enoxaparin to a patient with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which is the safest injection site? A. Anterolateral thigh, avoiding scar tissue B. Back of the arm, 2 inches away from a mole C. Abdomen, anterior-lateral aspect D. Buttock, upper outer quadrant 5. At Seattle Grace Hospital, the nursing team employs a functional nursing approach to ensure efficient care delivery. During the 7-3 shift in the Coronary Care Unit, Nurse Meredith is responsible for administering medications to patients recovering from various cardiac conditions. As she prepares to administer a prescribed medication for a patient with a recent myocardial infarction, she recalls that this drug specifically targets phase 4 of the cardiac action potential, where the resting membrane potential is maintained: A. Amiodarone B. Diltiazem C. Lidocaine D. Propranolol 6. Officially, stage 2 hypertension is diagnosed when the patient demonstrates a systolic blood pressure greater than ______ mm Hg and a diastolic blood pressure greater than _____ mm Hg over a sustained period. A. 120, 70 B. 140, 90 C. 130, 80 D. 110, 60 7. Nurse Cristina is educating a client about coronary artery disease management. Which statement demonstrates successful client understanding? A. "Ibuprofen will help increase blood flow to my heart." B. "I should take a pain reliever daily for chest pain." C. "I will stop taking Lipitor daily to reduce cholesterol." D. "I will take salicylic acid daily to improve blood flow to my heart." 8. A client diagnosed with hypertension has been prescribed captopril (Capoten). What essential teaching should Nurse Alex provide? A. Change positions slowly to prevent dizziness and falls. B. Check blood pressure in both arms before taking the medication. C. Increase fluid intake if dry mouth occurs. D. Include potassium-rich foods like bananas in the diet. 9. Nurse Chandler is administering furosemide (Lasix) 2 mg/kg IV for a client weighing 24 kg. The medication is supplied as 10 mg/mL. How much should he draw up? A. 0.48 mL B. 2.4 mL C. 4.8 mL D. 0.24 mL 10. A 16-year-old student presents with fever, dark urine, and flank pain. Upon assessment, Nurse Armin suspects acute glomerulonephritis. Which of the following is most likely present in this student's health history? A. Family history of acute glomerulonephritis B. Recent sore throat C. Renal trauma D. Renal calculi 11. A 10-year-old child is diagnosed with acute glomerulonephritis. Which of the following clinical manifestations would most likely be observed in this condition? A. Dysuria and hypotension B. Chills and flank pain C. Hematuria and proteinuria D. Oliguria and generalized edema 12. Nurse Mary is planning care for a client with acute glomerulonephritis. Which of the following should the Nurse prioritize? A. Remove the water pitcher from the bedside B. Ambulate the client frequently C. Encourage a diet that is high in protein D. Monitor the temperature every 2 hours * NLE * NCLEX * CGFNS * HAAD * PROMETRICS * DHA * MIDWIFERY * LET * RAD TECH * CRIMINOLOGY * DENTISTRY * PHARMACY *
2 | Page 13. A patient who has recently undergone knee surgery has been receiving Morphine 4 mg IV every 2 hours. Upon assessment, you notice that the patient has a respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute and is extremely drowsy. Which of the following conditions is the patient at risk for? A. Respiratory acidosis B. Respiratory alkalosis C. Hypokalemia D. Metabolic acidosis 14. A 55-year-old patient presents with signs of acute kidney injury (AKI). Which of the following diagnoses or treatments is most consistent with prerenal AKI? A. Incompatible blood transfusion B. IV tobramycin C. Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis D. Dissecting abdominal aortic aneurysm 15. A patient is being discharged home after hospitalization with hypocalcemia. Which statement by the patient indicates she understood the dietary instructions? A. "I will avoid sardines." B. "I'll avoid salt and Vitamin-D supplements." C. "I will tell my husband to only purchase skim milk." D. "I will be sure to eat lots of cheese, tofu, and spinach." 16. A patient with Celiac disease is at risk for which of the following? A. Hypokalemia B. Hypocalcemia C. Hypomagnesemia D. Hypercalcemia 17. Facial nerve stimulation causing twitching of the nose or lips in hypocalcemia is known as: A. Trousseau's sign B. Chvostek's sign C. Homan's sign D. Goodell's sign 18. For a patient with a serum calcium level of 7.0 mg/dL, the nursing priority is to: A. Educate about calcium-rich foods B. Initiate seizure precautions C. Administer vitamin D supplements as ordered D. Administer calcitonin 19. Nurse Reiner is assigned to a telemetry unit and is currently reviewing cases involving electrolyte imbalances. One of the patients admitted to the unit has lab results showing elevated potassium levels. Which patient is most likely at risk for hyperkalemia? A. Patient with Parathyroid cancer B. Patient with Cushing's Syndrome C. Patient with Addison's Disease D. Patient with breast cancer 20. Nurse Bertholdt, also a staff nurse in the telemetry unit, observed ECG changes on one of the patient’s monitors. The changes included tall peaked T-waves, flat P-waves, prolonged PR intervals, and widened QRS complexes.These ECG findings are commonly seen in which of the following conditions? A. Hypocalcemia B. Hypercalcemia C. Hypokalemia D. Hyperkalemia 21. A patient with hypokalemia has a potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L. The healthcare provider has advised increasing potassium intake. Which of the following food choices should Nurse Connie encourage? A. Tofu, oatmeal, and peas B. Peanuts, bread, and corn C. Avocados, strawberries, and potatoes D. Cheese, collard greens, and fish 22. A patient with a sodium level of 112 mEq/L is being treated with Lithium for bipolar disorder. Nurse Anya is concerned about the potential for Lithium toxicity. Which of the following actions should be the nursing priority? A. Monitor potassium level due to increased risk of toxicity B. Hold further doses of Lithium C. No priority is needed. 112 is a normal sodium level D. Monitor Lithium drug level due to risk of toxicity 23. A patient with a sodium level of 178 mEq/L is ordered to be started on 0.45% saline. Nurse Yuri is concerned about the risk of fluid shift and potential complications. What is the most important nursing intervention for this patient? A. Maintain patent IV B. Clarify doctor's order because 0.45% saline is contraindicated in hypernatremia C. Give rapidly to ensure fluid levels are shifted properly D. Give slowly and watch for signs and symptoms of cerebral edema 24. After completing diet teaching with a patient who has hypernatremia, which statement by the patient causes concern? A. "I will avoid cooking with butter." B. "I will avoid eating canned foods." C. "I will buy fresh vegetables and fruits." D. "I'm glad I can still tuyo for breakfast." 25. A patient with a sodium level of 115 mEq/L has been ordered Declomycin to help manage the condition. After receiving education about the medication, which statement by the patient would indicate a misunderstanding of how to take the medication? A. "Declomycin is to be taken with food, preferably, milk." B. "Declomycin is an antidiuretic hormone antagonist that treats SIADH." C. "Declomycin is part of the tetracycline family." D. "Declomycin is contraindicated in children and pregnant/nursing women." 26. Nurse Loid is preparing to administer a hypotonic solution to a patient. Which patient below would not be a candidate for a hypotonic solution? A. Patient experiencing Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemia B. Patient with increased intracranial pressure C. Patient with Diabetic Ketoacidosis D. All of the options are correct 27. A patient is being admitted with dehydration due to prolonged nausea and vomiting. The healthcare provider orders intravenous fluid therapy. Which fluid would you expect the patient to be started on? A. 5% Dextrose in 0.9% Saline B. 0.33% saline C. 0.9% Normal Saline D. 0.225% saline 28. A client with a hiatal hernia chronically experiences heartburn following meals. Nurse Nightfall is planning to teach the client strategies to manage this condition. Which of the following actions should the nurse advise the client to avoid, as it is contraindicated with a hiatal hernia? A. Raising the head of the bed on 6-inch blocks B. Taking H2-receptor antagonist medication C. Taking in small, frequent, bland meals D. Lying recumbent following meals 29. Nurse Ella is reviewing the medication record of a female client who has been diagnosed with acute gastritis. Which of the following medications, if noted on the client's record, should the nurse question? A. Indomethacin (Indocin) B. Propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal) C. Digoxin (Lanoxin) D. Furosemide (Lasix)

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