Tiêu đề PB1 - NP 5 - STUDENT COPY ✅

1 | Page PREBOARDS EXAMINATION 1 NURSING PRACTICE V CARE OF CLIENTS WITH PHYSIOLOGIC AND PSYCHOLOGICAL ALTERATIONS (PART C) GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS: 1. This test questionnaire contains 100 test questions 2. Shade only one (1) box for each question on your answer sheets. Two or more boxes shaded will invalid your answer. 3. AVOID ERASURES. 4. Detach one (1) answer sheet from the bottom of your Examinee ID/Answer Sheet Set. 5. Write the subject title “NURSING PRACTICE I” on the box provide Situation: You are a nurse working at a clinic that focuses on eye disorders. 1. When instilling ophthalmic drops, it’s crucial to account for the capacity of the conjunctival sac. What is the maximum volume of fluid that the conjunctival sac normally can hold? A. 10 mcl B. 50 mcL C. 100 mcL D. 150 mcL 2. Which statement accurately reflects the differences between the two main layers of the retina? A. The retinal pigment epithelium is multilayered and contains predominantly cone cells while sensory retina consists of a single row of cells that absorb excess light. B. There is no differences between the two layers C. The retinal pigment epithelium is a single layer of cells with numerous functions, while the sensory retina contains the rod and cone photoreceptor cells. D. The sensory retina is a single layer of cells with numerous functions, while the retinal pigment epithelium contains the rod and cone photoreceptor cells. 3. Where is the greatest concentration of cone cells in the retina? A. Fovea B. Peripheral retina C. Optic disk D. Ciliary body Situation: Mrs Echo, a 35-year-old factory worker, sustained a blunt trauma to her left eye after a metal rod fell from a shelf. She presents with chemosis, a shallow anterior chamber, hyphema, and reduced visual acuity in the injured eye. 4. What is the pathophysiologic event most likely responsible for Mrs. Echo’s condition? A. Rupture of the ear due to penetrating trauma B. Contusion force tearing the iris and damaging the anterior chamber of the eye C. Foreign body lodged within the trabecular meshwork D. Infection spreading from adjacent sinuses 5. What is the main treatment priority in this case? A. Reduce rebleeding and control intraocular pressure B. Perform immediate enucleation C. Apply antibiotic drops to clear infection D. Provide a pressure patch for faster healing 6. Primary enucleation may be considered within two weeks after the injury if: A. Hyphema cannot be cleared by medication B. The injured globe is irreparable with no light perception C. Chemosis fails to resolve after antibiotic therapy D. The patient requests its removal for cosmetics 7. The surgical removal of the entire contents of the orbit, surrounding soft tissue, and most or all of the eyelids. This surgery is indicated in malignancies of the orbit that are life- threatening or when more conservative modalities of treatment have failed or are inappropriate. A. Enucleation B. Evisceration C. Exenteration D. Ocular prostheses 8. Involves the removal of the intraocular contents through an incision or opening in the cornea or sclera. It may be surgically performed to treat severe ocular trauma with ruptured globe, severe ocular inflammation, or severe ocular infection. The optic nerve, sclera, extraocular muscles, and sometimes the cornea are left intact A. Enucleation B. Evisceration C. Exenteration D. Ocular prostheses 9. It’s the removal of the eyeball (globe) from the orbit, leaving the muscles and orbital contents intact. This procedure involves the separation and cutting of each of the ocular muscles and surrounding soft tissue and cutting of the optic nerve from the eyeball. The insertion of an orbital implant typically follows, and the conjunctiva is closed. A large pressure dressing is applied over the area. A. Enucleation B. Evisceration C. Exenteration D. Ocular prostheses Situation: Mrs. Alma, a 52-year-old woman, is experiencing episodes of severe vertigo that come on suddenly and last for hours. She also reports ringing in her left ear (tinnitus), a feeling of pressure in that ear, and a fluctuating sensorineural hearing loss. Currently, her symptoms predominantly involve vertigo and pressure, with no pronounced abnormalities in her hearing. 10. What is the most likely diagnosis for Mrs. Harper? A. Cochlear Ménière’s Disease B. Vestibular Ménière’s Disease C. Benign Paroxysomal Positional Vertigo (BPPV) D. Acoustic Neuroma 11. What is the classic triad of symptoms in Ménière’s Disease? A. Vertigo, Tinnitus, sensorineural Hearing Loss B. Hearing Loss, Otorrhea, Dizziness C. Vertigo, Nystagmus, sensorineural Hearing Loss D. Tinnitus, Ear Drainage, fullness of ears 12. Which clinical manifestation is most likely to prompt a patient with undiagnosed open-angle glaucoma to seek medical attention? A. Sudden onset of eye pain and vomiting B. Gradual loss of peripheral vision and halos around lights * NLE * NCLEX * CGFNS * HAAD * PROMETRICS * DHA * MIDWIFERY * LET * RAD TECH * CRIMINOLOGY * DENTISTRY * PHARMACY *

3 | Page C. “Naramdaman mo na ba ang pangangailangan na bawasan ito?” D. “Umiinom ka ba upang makatayo tuwing umaga?” 31. James says, “I usually drink first thing in the morning to ease my withdrawal symptoms.” What CAGE question applies? A. “Nakaramdam ka na ba ng pagkaguilty?” B. “Nainis ka na ba sa mga pumupuna rito?” C. “Naramdaman mo na ba ang pangangailangan na bawasan ito?” D. “Umiinom ka ba upang makatayo tuwing umaga?” 32. Mark, a 30-year-old patient with opioid dependency, is currently in a rehabilitation facility after completing his detoxification. His clinician prescribes a medication to help discourage him from relapsing by blocking the effects of opioids. What medication is most likely prescribed? A. Naltrexone B. Methadone C. Naloxone D. Buprenorphine 33. Miguel, a 45-year-old patient with severe opioid dependency, is experiencing strong withdrawal symptoms. His clinician prescribes medication under close supervision to ease his withdrawal symptoms and reduce cravings. What medication is most likely used in this scenario? A. Naltrexone B. Methadone C. Naloxone D. Buprenorphine 34. A patient presents with an unshakable belief that a famous actor is in love with them, although they’ve never met. They are fully oriented, maintain employment, and exhibit no hallucinations or disorganized thinking. What is the most appropriate diagnosis? A. Schizophrenia B. Brief psychotic disorder C. Delusional disorder D. Schizoaffective disorder 35. Which of the following features would most likely help distinguish schizotypal personality disorder from schizophrenia? A. Social withdrawal and poor eye contact B. Disorganized speech and hallucinations C. Eccentric behavior without hallucinations or delusions D. Flat affect and difficulty with daily functioning 36. A patient is admitted with hallucinations and bizarre behavior following extreme psychological trauma. The symptoms began 3 days ago. Which diagnosis is most likely appropriate at this point? A. Schizophrenia B. Brief psychotic disorder C. Schizoaffective disorder D. Delusional disorder 37. Which statement best differentiates schizophreniform disorder from schizophrenia? A. It includes manic symptoms. B. It is induced by substance use. C. It lasts less than 6 months. D. It lacks hallucinations. 38. A patient has both manic episodes and symptoms of schizophrenia such as auditory hallucinations. What is the most appropriate diagnosis? A. Bipolar disorder B. Schizoaffective disorder C. Delusional disorder D. Schizophreniform disorder 39. A nurse is caring for a patient recently diagnosed with schizophrenia who is actively experiencing hallucinations and delusions. The patient is disorganized, socially withdrawn, and has difficulty with basic functioning. Which phase of schizophrenia is the patient most likely experiencing? A. Prodromal phase B. Phase I C. Phase II D. Phase III 40. In which phase of schizophrenia does the patient typically experience a return to baseline functioning, possibly with diminished or absent symptoms, and is able to live independently in the community? A. Phase I B. Phase II C. Phase III D. Prodromal phase 41. A patient on haloperidol develops muscle rigidity, hyperthermia, labile blood pressure, and altered consciousness. What is the most likely diagnosis, and what is the immediate nursing priority? A. Anticholinergic toxicity; administer IV fluids B. Tardive dyskinesia; reduce the dose of haloperidol C. Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS); discontinue the antipsychotic and initiate cooling measures D. Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS); administer benztropine 42. What is a key reason second-generation antipsychotics are often preferred over first-generation agents in the treatment of schizophrenia? A. They are more affordable and widely available B. They eliminate the need for lab monitoring C. They have minimal impact on both positive and negative symptoms D. They are less likely to cause extrapyramidal symptoms and tardive dyskinesia 43. A patient taking clozapine complains of sore throat and fever. Which of the following is the priority nursing action? A. Advise bed rest and oral hydration B. Hold the next dose and notify the provider to check the white blood cell count C. Reassure the patient that it is a common cold D. Administer acetaminophen and continue monitoring 44. Which side effect is most characteristic of long-term use of first-generation antipsychotics and is often irreversible? A. Akathisia B. Acute dystonia C. Tardive dyskinesia D. Pseudoparkinsonism 45. A patient on risperidone develops prolonged QT interval on ECG. What is the primary concern related to this finding? A. Increased risk for seizures B. Potential development of agranulocytosis C. Risk for life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias D. Elevated risk for metabolic syndrome 46. A nurse is assessing a patient who reports feeling unusually energetic, requiring very little sleep, and being highly productive at work for the past four days. The patient denies any hallucinations or delusions. What type of bipolar disorder is most likely present? A. Bipolar I Disorder B. Bipolar II Disorder C. Cyclothymic Disorder D. Schizoaffective Disorder 47. Which of the following symptoms is most specific to dysphoric mania rather than euphoric mania? A. Excessive energy and inflated self-esteem B. Grandiosity and confusion C. Agitation, hypersexuality, and persecutory delusions D. Increased goal-directed behavior and reduced sleep 48. A patient has experienced alternating episodes of hypomania and mild depression for the past 2 years. The symptoms are not severe enough to meet the criteria for full mania or major depression. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Bipolar I Disorder B. Bipolar II Disorder C. Cyclothymic Disorder D. Major Depressive Disorder with mixed features 49. A 30-year-old patient recently completed inpatient treatment for major depressive disorder and has shown significant improvement in mood and functioning. The healthcare provider emphasizes the importance of continuing antidepressant medication and participating in therapy to prevent relapse. Which phase of treatment does this scenario describe? A. Acute Phase B. Maintenance Phase C. Continuation Phase D. Relapse Phase