Tiêu đề RECALLS 10 - NP4 - SC ✅

2 | Page B. Cook with tallow. C. Increase amounts of brassica vegetables. D. Discourage broiled foods. 13. You auscultate Patient Mikay’s abdomen. Which sound would alert the doctor to a potential bowel obstruction? A. Borborygmus B. Tinkling sounds C. Low-pitched gurgling D. Clicking sounds 14. Mikay undergoes a colonoscopy, and a tumor is found in the transverse colon. Which symptom is most likely indicative of this? A. Hematochezia B. No disruption to bowel patterns C. Gas pains D. Anemia 15. Patient Mikay undergoes surgery for tumor removal and has a temporary colostomy. Which finding should be reported to the physician? A. Mucocutaneous separation B. Stoma protrudes about ¾ inch from the abdominal wall C. Stoma is slightly edematous D. The stoma has not functioned for 24 hours Situation: Elphie Aba, a 45-year-old female, arrives at the emergency room complaining of moderate to severe joint pain with morning stiffness lasting longer than 30 minutes. She sought emergency care due to worsening pain that has become unbearable. 16. Based on the given symptoms, you would suspect that Elphie is to be diagnosed with: A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Osteoarthritis C. Gout D. Osteoporosis 17. Following her diagnosis, you check Elphie’s chart. Which finding is not indicative of her condition? A. Elevated ESR B. Presence of Heberden's nodes C. Rheumatoid Factor - 75 units/mL D. Inflammation of synovial tissue 18. Based on the history assessment, Elphie experienced heart failure five months ago. Which medication, if prescribed by the doctor, should be used with caution and require monitoring? A. Indomethacin B. Methotrexate C. Celecoxib D. Sulfasalazine 19. Elphie mentions she is worried for her Zumba buddy, Linda G, because she has similar symptoms. After their Zumba session, Linda’s joints, specifically her knees and hips, are painful. However, after some rest, she felt fine. What is Linda G most likely suffering from? A. Osteoarthritis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Gout D. Osteoporosis 20. In order to alleviate Linda G's pain and prevent worsening of symptoms, what must she NOT do during acute episodes? A. Use a large pillow under the head or knees B. Immobilize the affected joint with a splint C. Keep linen off of legs and feet D. Avoid flexion of knees and feet GENITOURINARY: UTI Situation: Urinary Tract Infections (UTIs) are becoming more prevalent due to various factors, with patients seeking care at the Emergency Department (ED). 21. There are different ways bacteria can reach the urinary tract. What is the most common route of infection? A. Direct extension B. Hematogenous C. Transurethral D. Transureteral 22. UTI is the most common cause of acute bacterial sepsis in nursing home patients. Among the following individuals, who is most susceptible to developing a UTI? A. A 62-year-old man with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) B. A 55-year-old woman who prefers soda over water C. A fresh-grad nurse who urinates only once per shift D. A 66-year-old woman with an indwelling Foley catheter 23. In a nursing home, which symptom should you watch for in an elderly client suspected of having a UTI? A. Frequency of urination B. Altered sensorium C. Urgency of urination D. High-grade fever 24. One of the aides in the nursing home suspects they have a UTI. Which statement makes it most likely? A. "Ang daming lumalabas pag umiihi ako." B. "Matamis ang amoy ng ihi ko." C. "Masakit ang likod ko." D. "Parang umaapoy yung ihi ko pag lumalabas." 25. The aide was diagnosed with acute UTI and was prescribed sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim for 7 days. What nursing education should you provide? A. Report the presence of dark brown or red urine. B. Safe for breastfeeding moms. C. Wear sunscreen before going out in the sun. D. May decrease the concentration of digoxin. Situation: Nurse Santol, a fresh graduate nurse, is confused between the different disorders of the Genitourinary system. She decides to review the key characteristics and causes of each condition to update her knowledge. 26. A 25-year-old male presents with symptoms of urethral discharge and dysuria. Upon assessment, urethritis is suspected. What is the most common cause of urethritis in men? A. Gonorrhea B. Herpes simplex virus C. Syphilis D. Human papillomavirus (HPV) 27. Nurse Santol is reviewing medications for treating Ureteritis. Which of the following medication-disease pairings is correctly matched? A. Metronidazole for yeast infections B. Clotrimazole for chlamydial infections C. Nystatin for trichomonas infections D. Doxycycline for chlamydial infections 28. A nurse is caring for a patient with pyelonephritis. Which nursing intervention is the most appropriate? A. Provide a high-calorie, high-protein diet. B. Ensure that urinary output is a minimum of 1500 mL/24 hours. C. Provide a cold compress to the flank area to relieve pain. D. Monitor weight weekly. GENITOURINARY: PROSTATITIS Situation: Nurse Ming has a patient scheduled for a transurethral resection of the prostate. To provide the best quality care, she takes time to read and review concepts related to the procedure. 29. Inflammation of the prostate gland is commonly caused by an infectious agent, may it be acute or chronic. What is the most common form of chronic prostatitis? A. Bacterial B. Viral C. Sexual D. Abacterial 30. The final diagnosis of the patient is Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH) and is scheduled for TURP. Which of the following clinical manifestations is not associated with BPH? A. The prostate is large, rubbery, and tender B. Hesitancy in starting urination

4 | Page Situation: Tumors of the colon and rectum are relatively common, and the most significant risk factor is older age. 47. Which of the following choices will you not include as a risk factor for colorectal cancer? A. Cigarette smoking B. High consumption of alcohol C. History of radiation to the pelvis D. High-fat, low-protein (with low intake of beef), low- fiber diet 48. The clinical manifestation presents itself differently depending on the location of the tumor in the affected intestinal segment. What is the most likely affected side if the patient presents to the clinic with dull abdominal pain and melena? A. Right-sided tumor B. Left-sided tumor C. Rectal tumor D. Hemorrhoids 49. For surveillance purposes, a 45-year-old client came to the clinic to have which of the following procedures for screening of colorectal cancer? A. Colonoscopy B. CEA level (carcinoembryonic antigen) C. CT Scan of abdomen D. Sigmoidoscopy 50. Surgery is the mainstay of initial treatment for colorectal cancer, which of the following accurately describes the Miles resection treatment? A. Removal of the tumor and portions of the bowel on either side of the growth, but not the blood vessels and lymphatic nodes B. Removal of the tumor and portions of the bowel on either side of the growth, as well as the blood vessels and lymphatic nodes C. Removal of the tumor and a portion of the sigmoid and all of the rectum and anal sphincter D. Temporary colostomy followed by segmental resection 51. If the patient is admitted and is scheduled for surgical treatment of his colorectal cancer, which of the following is incorrect to include in the dietary preoperative care for the patient? A. It is important to build the patient’s stamina in the days preceding surgery. B. Diet high in calories, protein, and carbohydrates and low in residue. C. The goal for the dietary intake several days before the surgery is to provide adequate nutrition and increase excessive peristalsis D. None of the above 52. Which of the following is true about inserting an NG tube for preoperative intervention? A. To drain accumulated fluids B. To prevent abdominal distention C. Both A and B D. Neither A nor B Situation: Hepatic dysfunction results from damage to the liver’s parenchymal cells. You are reviewing about the hepatic disorders as you are currently working on a research project involving patients with this illness. 53. One of the clients asked you why patients with liver disease often appear yellow, you are correct when you explain which of the following? A. Due to increased bile concentration in the blood in the presence of liver disease. B. Due to decreased destruction of red blood cells. C. As the flow of bile is impeded, bilirubin concentration in the blood accumulates. D. As the bilirubin enters the intestines, there is increase in urobilinogen under the skin. 54. Related to one of the most common manifestations of liver diseases, which of the following is not related to ascites? A. Increased abdominal girth and rapid weight gain B. Short of breath C. Striae and constricted veins may be visible over the abdominal wall D. Fluid and electrolyte imbalances 55. In creating the plan of care, which of the following should NOT be incorporated in the dietary treatment of the patient with ascites? A. Goal of treatment is a negative sodium balance to reduce fluid retention B. Diets that are not made to be a low-salt diet should be avoided. C. Salt substitutes such as lemon juice, oregano, and thyme can be used by the patient. D. Commercial salt substitutes can be readily used by the patient. 56. In assessing for abdominal fluid wave, which should NOT be done by the nurse? A. The examiner places the hands along the sides of the patient’s flank B. An assistant’s hand is placed (ulnar side up) along the patient’s midline C. The examiner strikes one flank sharply D. None of the above 57. Once the physician decides to do a percutaneous liver biopsy, which intercostal space would you expect to be inserted into? A. Between 10 to 11 B. Between 6 to 7 C. Between 7 to 8 D. Between 8 to 9 Situation: You are caring for patients who are diagnosed with gastrointestinal cancer. 58. Which of the following dietary practice increases the chances of developing gastric cancer? A. Diet high in smoked, salted, or pickled foods and low in fruits and vegetables B. Diet high in smoked, low in salted, or pickled foods, low on meat C. Diet high in fat and meat, low in fruits and vegetables D. Diet is not a significant risk factor 59. While doing the health history and physical examination with the patient with suspected gastric ulcer, which of the following may be associated with the illness? I. Pain relieved by antacids II. Dyspepsia III. Early satiety IV. Weight gain V. Abdominal pain just below the umbilicus VI. Loss of appetite A. II, V, VI B. I, II, III, IV, VI C. I, II, III, VI D. I, II, IV, VI 60. The patient is scheduled to have Antrectomy Billroth I (gastroduodenostomy), she asked you to clarify what the procedure is about after the meeting with the physician. You are correct when you said which of the following? A. Removal of the lower portion of the antrum of the stomach, as well as a small portion of the duodenum and pylorus B. Longitudinal incision is made into the pylorus and transversely sutured closed to enlarge the outlet and relax the muscle C. Removal of lower portion (antrum) of stomach with anastomosis to jejunum D. Severs the right and left vagus nerves as they enter the stomach at the distal part of the esophagus 61. There are few cancers that originate from the liver, which of the following is NOT associated with developing primary liver tumors? A. Hepatitis B infection B. Hepatitis C infection C. Cirrhosis D. Metastases 62. Which of the following will you not include in the initial diagnostic workup for liver cancer? A. CT scan