Tiêu đề ENHANCEMENT -PB EXAM - NP 5- STUDENT COPY.docx.pdf ✅

PREBOARDS EXAMINATION NURSING PRACTICE V CARE OF CLIENTS WITH PHYSIOLOGIC AND PSYCHOLOGICAL ALTERATIONS (PART C) ENHANCEMENT PHASE GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS: 1. This test questionnaire contains 100 test questions 2. Shade only one (1) box for each question on your answer sheets. Two or more boxes shaded will invalid your answer. 3. AVOID ERASURES. 4. Detach one (1) answer sheet from the bottom of your Examinee ID/Answer Sheet Set. 5. Write the subject title “NURSING PRACTICE I” on the box provided Situation 11 – Gerald, a 26-year old construction worker, arrives in the Ear Clinic riding a Honda Motorcycle. He is wearing a headset with Mp3 player hooked to his belt. Nelson is for hearing assessment. 1. Pure Tone Audiometry is ordered for Gerald. Which of the following does this procedure measure? A. Vestibular portion of the auditory nerve B. Ear canal volume C. Structure of the cars D. Hearing acuity 2. Gerald was found to have Mastoiditis. Which of the following ear structure is affected? A. Tympanic membrane B. Pinna C. Eustachian tube D. Mastoid air cells 3. Which of the following is the most common cause of Mastoiditis? A. Bone tumor B. Untreated Otitis Media C. Meningitis D. Mastoid diseases 4. Antibiotics have limited use in the actual treatment of Mastoiditis because________. A. Tissue destruction is extensive B. It is a long-term treatment C. Antibiotics do not easily penetrate the infected bony structure of the mastoid D. Culture has to be done to identify which antibiotic is most effective for the treatment of Mastoiditis 5. Which of the following is the most common treatment for Mastoiditis? A. Mastoidectomy only B. Mastoidectomy with tympanoplasty C. Antibiotics with tympanoplasty D. Antibiotics Situation 2 – As a professional nurse you take into consideration the ethico-moral principles in providing nursing care. 6. You released information over the phone to a caller who identified himself as the brother of your patient. You found out later that the brother was out of town. Which of the following rights did you violate? A. Right to privacy B. Right to continuity of care C. Right to confidentiality D. Right to respectful care 7. Your patient is having difficulty making decision to undergo hip surgery. Which of the following nursing actions BEST describes your advocacy roles as a nurse? A. Protect patient’s autonomy and independence B. Communicate patient’s needs to the interdisciplinary team C. Advise the client to undergo surgery because it is best for her D. Actively support patient’s decision 8. Mrs Go needs to undergo a hip surgery. She refused to have it done even after the attending surgeon has explained the procedure thoroughly. Which ethical principle applies in this situation? A. Autonomy – the right to make one’s own decisions (Kozier&Erb, p.85). B. Justice – often referred to as fairness (Kozier&Erb, p.85). C. Non-maleficence – duty to do no harm (Kozier&Erb, p.85). D. Beneficence – means doing good (Kozier&Erb, p.85). 9. Informed consent is one of the patient’s bill of rights. One of its requirements is the capacity of the patient to give it. Which of the following elements is/are related to this capacity? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY). 1) Patient is an adult – a competent client older than 18 years of age must sign the consent (Saunders, p.223) 2) He is competent to make a choice – the client must be mentally and emotionally competent to give the consent (Saunders, p.223) 3) He has the freedom to make a choice 4) He can understand the consequences – the client must be mentally and emotionally competent to give the consent (Saunders, p.223) A. 1, 2, 3 B. 1, 2, 4 C. c. 1, 2, 3, 4 D. d. 1, 3, 4 10. Another requirement of informed consent is voluntariness. It means, freedom of choice without the following conditions, EXCEPT__________. A. Force B. Fraud C. consequences D. deceit SITUATION: Like death and taxes, change is inevitable. Change can result into both success and failure of an organization. Therefore, nurse managers must be knowledgeable in dealing with change. 11. When people in control enforce changes in an organization and others in the organization have no input into these changes, what change strategy is being implemented? A. Normative-Reeducative strategy B. Power-Coercive strategy C. Change-Stabilization strategy D. Rational-Empirical strategy 1 | Page
12. The change strategy which assumes that people act more in accordance with social values and less likely to change based on information or rational arguments: A. Stabilization-Evaluation strategy B. Power-Coercive strategy C. Normative-Reeducative strategy D. Rational-Empirical strategy 13. Martyr Nieverra, hospital X’s medical director, is lobbying for majority rule within the group to decide on what new equipment will be purchased for every department. This decision making model is called: A. Collegial B. Political C. Garbage can D. Swallow hard 14. A nurse manager is planning to implement a change in the method of the documentation system for the nursing unit. Many problems have occurred as a result of the present documentation system, and the nurse manager determines that a change is required. The initial steps in the process of change for the nurse manager is which of the following? A. Plan strategies to implement the change B. Set goals and priorities regarding the change process C. Identify the inefficiency that needs improvement or correction D. Identify potential solutions and strategies for the change process 15. According to Kurt Lewin, the final step needed to complete the change process successfully is called: A. Moving B. Unfreezing C. Changing D. Refreezing SITUATION: The stages of grief and mourning are universal and are experienced by people from all walks of life, across many cultures. Mourning occurs in response to an individual’s own terminal illness, the loss of a close relationship, or to the death of a valued being, human or animal. There are five stages of grief that were first proposed by Elisabeth Kübler-Ross in her 1969 book On Death and Dying. 16. Which of the following statements is true in the perception of a 5y/o child on death? A. Associates death with violence B. Believes death is reversible C. Understands own mortality D. May fantasize that death can be defied 17. When terminally-ill client named Kate assumes artificial cheerfulness and opts to visit another doctor for second opinion about her medical diagnosis, what stage of grieving is she in? A. Bargaining B. Acceptance C. Denial D. Depression 18. The most important consideration when caring for dying patient like Kate is: A. Promotion of physiologic and psychologic comfort B. Provision of adequate rest and sleep C. Provision of adequate nutrition D. Provision of personal hygiene measures 19. Kate requested for a DNR order. Days after, she went into cardiopulmonary arrest. Which of the following is appropriate nursing intervention for Kate’s husband who is grieving over her death? A. Advise him not to cry because he’s a man and it would do no good for him B. Encourage him to accept a new lover/object to replace lost person C. Provide opportunity to the person to "tell their story" D. Discourage expression of difficult feelings such as anger and sadness 20. Kate’s husband expresses a feeling of numbness, anxiety, preoccupation, confusion and sadness. The nurse knows that these feelings are characteristics of which phase of bereavement: A. Shock and disbelief B. Yearning and protest C. Anguish and despair D. Reorganization and restitution Situation – A 60-year old developed shock after a severe myocardial infarction. He now has acute renal failure 21. The client’s family asks the nurse why the client developed acute renal failure. The nurse should base the respond on the knowledge that there is: A. An obstruction of flow from the kidneys B. A surge of the blood flow into the kidneys C. A prolonged episode of inadequate cardiac output D. Histologic damage to the kidney resulting in acute tubular necrosis 22. The most significant sign of acute renal failure is: A. Decreased urine output B. Increased blood pressure C. Increased urine specific gravity D. Elevated body temperature 23. The client’s blood urea nitrogen(BUN) level is elevated. This most likely resulted from: A. Hemolysis of RBC B. Reduced renal blood flow C. Below normal metabolic rate D. Destruction of kidney cell 24. The client’s serum potassium is elevated, and the nurse administers sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate). The drug is administered because of its ability to: A. Exchange sodium and potassium ions in the colon B. Increase potassium excretion from the colon C. Increase calcium absorption in the colon D. Release hydrogen ions for sodium ions 25. If the client’s potassium level continues to rise, the nurse should be prepared for which of the following emergency situations: A. Hemorrhage B. Pulmonary edema C. Cardiac arrest D. Circulatory collapse 26. A high carbohydrate, low protein diet is prescribed for the client. The rationale for high carbohydrate diet is that carbohydrates will: A. Act as a diuretic B. Help maintain urine acidity C. Prevent the development of ketosis D. To prevent accumulation of toxic substances 27. The client has an external cannula inserted in her forearm for hemodialysis. Which of the following measures should the nurse avoid when caring for the client? A. Using the unaffected arm for blood pressure measurements. B. Performing venipuncture on the arm with fistula. C. Auscultating the cannula for bruits every 4 hours. D. Checking of bleeding at the needle insertion site. 28. As the client undergoes her first hemodialysis treatment, the nurse should assess her carefully for signs and symptoms of disequilibrium syndrome including: A. Fever, chills and chest pain B. Headache, confusion and nausea C. Fever, rales, and shortness of breath D. Hypotension, tachycardia, and shortness of breath 29. If disequilibrium syndrome occurs during dialysis, the priority nursing action would be to: A. Slow down the rate of dialysis B. Reassure the client that it will dissipate eventually 2 | Page