Tiêu đề RECALLS 1 (NP4) PDF COPY ✅

TOP RANK REVIEW ACADEMY, INC. Page 1 | 6 RECALLS EXAMINATION 1 NURSING PRACTICE IV CARE OF HEALTHY / AT RISK MOTHER CHILD NOV 2024 Philippine Nurse Licensure Examination Review 1. Mrs. Johnson, a 65-year-old woman, visits the clinic for a routine check-up. During the assessment, the nurse asks Mrs. Johnson about her nutritional habits. Mrs. Johnson mentions that she often skips meals and prefers eating processed foods. Upon further inquiry, the nurse finds out that Mrs. Johnson has lost 15 pounds in the last 6 months. Which statement by Mrs. Johnson indicates high nutritional risk? A. "I eat fewer than two meals per day." B. "I eat few fruits, vegetables, or milk products." C. "I have an illness that made me change the kind of food I eat." D. "I take three or more different prescribed or over- the-counter drugs a day." 2. A nurse is caring for a patient with a diagnosis of heart failure. The nurse is monitoring the patient's fluid balance closely. Which of the following assessment findings would indicate fluid overload in a patient with heart failure? A. Decreased blood pressure B. Increased heart rate C. Decreased urine output D. Increased respiratory rate 3. The nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a patient's nutritional assessment. Which laboratory test provides an estimate of visceral protein stores? A. Hemoglobin level B. Total lymphocyte count C. Serum albumin level D. Urinary urea nitrogen level 4. The nurse is assessing a patient's nutritional status and wants to evaluate the state of nitrogen balance. Which laboratory test would be most appropriate? A. Serum proteins B. Urinary urea nitrogen C. Urinary creatinine D. Total lymphocyte count 5. The nurse is assessing a patient's nutritional status and wants to evaluate the total number of lymphocyte white blood cells. Which laboratory test should the nurse consider? A. Hemoglobin level B. Serum albumin level C. Total lymphocyte count D. Urinary urea nitrogen level 6. The nurse is caring for a client with a urinary catheter. Which intervention is essential for maintaining catheter care? A. Emptying the drainage bag once a day B. Disconnecting the catheter from the drainage tubing to irrigate it C. Securing the catheter to the client's leg with tape D. Cleaning the perineal area with soap and water daily 7. The nurse is assessing a client with urinary incontinence. Which intervention is appropriate to promote continence? A. Restricting fluid intake to minimize urine production B. Encouraging the client to hold urine for as long as possible C. Teaching pelvic floor muscle exercises (Kegel exercises) D. Administering an antidiuretic medication to decrease urine output 8. The nurse is caring for a client with a urinary tract infection (UTI). Which intervention is important for preventing the spread of infection? A. Encouraging the client to drink plenty of fluids B. Administering antibiotics as ordered C. Providing perineal care after each voiding or bowel movement D. Applying heat to the suprapubic area to relieve discomfort 9. The nurse is caring for a client with urinary retention. Which intervention is appropriate to promote bladder emptying? A. Encouraging the client to drink caffeinated beverages B. Assisting the client to a sitting position on the bedside commode C. Applying a cold pack to the lower abdomen D. Administering a diuretic medication to increase urine production 10. The nurse is caring for a client with a urinary diversion. Which intervention is important for stoma care? A. Applying a sterile dressing over the stoma B. Emptying the drainage bag when it is two-thirds full C. Irrigating the stoma with normal saline solution D. Cleansing the stoma with mild soap and water 11. The nurse is caring for a client with a surgical wound. Which intervention is essential for preventing surgical site infections? A. Administering prophylactic antibiotics after surgery B. Changing the wound dressing daily C. Applying hydrogen peroxide to the wound D. Using sterile gloves during wound care 12. The nurse is assessing a client's wound for signs of infection. Which finding is most indicative of an infected wound? A. Redness and swelling at the wound site B. Clear serous drainage from the wound C. Presence of granulation tissue D. Absence of pain at the wound site 13. The nurse is providing wound care for a client with a pressure ulcer. Which intervention is appropriate for promoting wound healing? A. Applying a dry sterile dressing to the wound B. Irrigating the wound with hydrogen peroxide C. Using a transparent film dressing over the wound D. Packing the wound with wet-to-dry dressings 14. The nurse is providing wound care for a client with a surgical incision. Which intervention is important for preventing dehiscence? A. Applying adhesive strips across the incision B. Leaving the incision exposed to air C. Using sterile gloves during wound care D. Administering pain medication as prescribed 15. The nurse is caring for a client with a wound that is healing by secondary intention. Which statement accurately describes the healing process? A. The wound edges are brought together with sutures or staples. B. Granulation tissue fills in the wound bed. C. The wound heals quickly with minimal scarring. D. The wound heals from the inside out. 16. A 35-year-old male patient presents to the clinic complaining of feeling dizzy and lightheaded. Which vital sign should the nurse assess first? A. Temperature B. Pulse C. Blood pressure D. Respirations
TOP RANK REVIEW ACADEMY, INC. Page 2 | 6 17. A patient's blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg. How would you classify this blood pressure reading? A. Normal blood pressure B. Prehypertension C. Hypertension stage 1 D. Hypertension stage 2 18. A 2-year-old child is admitted to the pediatric unit. Which method should the nurse use to assess the child's temperature? A. Oral B. Axillary C. Tympanic D. Rectal 19. A patient's pulse rate is 110 beats per minute. How would you classify this pulse rate? A. Bradycardia B. Tachycardia C. Normal D. Irregular 20. A patient has a respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute. How would you classify this respiratory rate? A. Bradypnea B. Tachypnea C. Normal D. Apnea 21. A 70-year-old patient is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of pneumonia. Which age-related change should the nurse consider when assessing the patient's vital signs? A. Increased core body temperature B. Decreased blood pressure C. Decreased respiratory rate D. Increased pulse rate 22. A nurse is assessing a newborn infant's vital signs. Which vital sign should the nurse expect to be significantly different from an adult's vital sign? A. Blood pressure B. Respiratory rate C. Temperature D. Pulse rate 23. A patient with a body mass index (BMI) of 35 is admitted to the hospital. How should the nurse consider the patient's BMI when assessing blood pressure? A. BMI does not affect blood pressure B. BMI may cause falsely elevated blood pressure readings C. BMI may cause falsely low blood pressure readings D. BMI may cause irregular blood pressure readings 24. A patient with a history of anxiety disorder is admitted to the emergency department. When assessing the patient's vital signs, which finding should the nurse anticipate? A. Elevated body temperature B. Bradycardia C. Tachypnea D. Hypertension 25. A patient with a spinal cord injury at the C4 level is admitted to the rehabilitation unit. Which vital sign should the nurse pay particular attention to in this patient? A. Blood pressure B. Respiratory rate C. Pulse rate D. Temperature 26. A patient with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted to the hospital. Which vital sign finding should the nurse prioritize in this patient? A. Blood pressure B. Temperature C. Pulse oximetry D. Respiratory rate 27. A patient presents to the emergency department with a suspected myocardial infarction. Which vital sign finding should the nurse consider as an early indicator of complications? A. Blood pressure B. Temperature C. Heart rate D. Respiratory rate 28. A patient with end-stage renal disease is undergoing hemodialysis. Which vital sign should the nurse closely monitor during the dialysis session? A. Blood pressure B. Temperature C. Heart rate D. Respiratory rate 29. A patient with a traumatic brain injury is admitted to the intensive care unit. Which vital sign finding should the nurse be most concerned about in this patient? A. Blood pressure B. Temperature C. Heart rate D. Intracranial pressure 30. A patient is receiving intravenous chemotherapy for cancer treatment. Which vital sign finding should the nurse closely monitor for potential complications? A. Blood pressure B. Temperature C. Heart rate D. Respiratory rate 31. A nursing student is studying for their upcoming licensure examination and comes across a question related to Republic Act No. 9173. They read the following: "According to Republic Act No. 9173, what is the specific provision that guarantees the delivery of quality basic health services through an adequate nursing personnel system throughout the country?" A. Section 2 B. Section 5 C. Section 7 D. Section 9 32. A nurse is attending a seminar on the regulatory aspects of nursing practice. The speaker discusses the qualifications of the Chairperson and Members of the Board as stated in Republic Act No. 9173. The nurse is asked: "According to Section 4 of Republic Act No. 9173, what is the specific qualification required for the Chairperson and Members of the Board regarding their education?" A. Possession of a master's degree in nursing B. Completion of a doctoral degree in nursing C. Completion of a bachelor's degree in nursing D. Possession of a medical degree 33. A nursing student is preparing for their future career as a nurse and wants to understand the role of the Board of Nursing as outlined in Republic Act No. 9173. They come across the following question: "According to Republic Act No. 9173, what specific power does the Board of Nursing have in relation to nursing education?" A. Conducting hearings and investigations for unethical conduct B. Recognizing nursing specialty organizations C. Ensuring quality nursing education by examining facilities D. Conducting the licensure examination for nurses 34. A nurse is reviewing their professional responsibilities and obligations as outlined in Republic Act No. 9173. They encounter the following question: "According to Republic Act No. 9173, what is the specific provision regarding the Code of Ethics for nurses?" A. Section 6 B. Section 8 C. Section 10 D. Section 12 35. A nursing student is studying the requirements for admission to the licensure examination as stated in Republic Act No. 9173. They read the following question: "According to Republic Act No. 9173, what is the specific qualification required for admission to the licensure examination?" A. Completion of a master's degree in nursing B. Good moral character C. Filipino citizenship D. Completion of a doctoral degree in nursing 36. A nursing student is reviewing the provisions of Republic Act No. 9173 and encounters the following question: "According to the Act, what is the specific requirement for the Chairperson and Members of the Board of Nursing in terms of continuous practice of the nursing profession?" A. At least five years B. At least seven years C. At least ten years D. At least twelve years 37. A nursing student is studying the role of the Board of Nursing as outlined in Republic Act No. 9173. They come across the following question: "According to the Act, what specific power does the Board of Nursing have in relation to the licensure examination for nurses?"
TOP RANK REVIEW ACADEMY, INC. Page 3 | 6 A. Determining the passing score for the examination B. Developing the content and format of the examination C. Administering the examination to candidates D. Evaluating the results and issuing the license 38. A nurse is attending a professional development seminar on ethical conduct in nursing practice. The speaker discusses the disciplinary actions outlined in Republic Act No. 9173. The nurse is asked: "According to the Act, what specific action may lead to the removal or suspension of a nurse's license?" A. Violation of patient confidentiality B. Failure to maintain continuing education requirements C. Conviction of a criminal offense involving moral turpitude D. Non-compliance with nursing practice standards 39. A nursing student is reviewing the requirements for admission to the licensure examination as stated in Republic Act No. 9173. They read the following question: "According to the Act, what is the specific educational requirement for admission to the licensure examination?" A. Completion of a bachelor's degree in nursing B. Completion of a master's degree in nursing C. Completion of a doctoral degree in nursing D. Completion of a diploma program in nursing 40. A nurse is researching the provisions related to the Code of Ethics for nurses as stated in Republic Act No. 9173. They encounter the following question: "According to the Act, what is the specific provision regarding the Code of Ethics for nurses?" A. Section 6 B. Section 10 C. Section 14 D. Section 18 Scenario: You are a nursing instructor conducting a class on professional ethics for a group of nursing students. You want to assess their understanding of the Code of Ethics for Registered Nurses. You decide to create a set of questions based on the provided PDF document. 41. According to the Code of Ethics for Registered Nurses, what is the responsibility of a registered nurse when the preservation of health, prevention of illness, alleviation of suffering, and restoration of health are not possible? A. Assisting towards a peaceful death B. Promoting health and preventing illness C. Preserving health at all costs D. Alleviating suffering and restoring health 42. According to the Code of Ethics for Registered Nurses, what should registered nurses do with personal information acquired in the process of giving nursing care? A. Share it with other healthcare professionals B. Hold it in strict confidence C. Disclose it to the patient's family D. Use it for research purposes 43. According to the Code of Ethics for Registered Nurses, what should registered nurses consider when providing nursing care to patients? A. Individuality and totality of patients B. Cultural diversity and political status C. Social and ecological aspects of illness D. Physiological and psychological aspects of illness 44. According to the Code of Ethics for Registered Nurses, what should registered nurses do in terms of patients' rights? A. Uphold the rights of individuals B. Respect the cultural and values of patients C. Provide a favorable environment for growth and development D. Ensure patients' records are available only to those involved in their care 45. According to the Code of Ethics for Registered Nurses, what is the responsibility of registered nurses in terms of documentation? A. Accurate documentation is the hallmark of nursing accountability B. Documentation should be shared with other healthcare providers C. Documentation should be used for research purposes D. Documentation should be held in strict confidence 46. According to the Code of Ethics for Registered Nurses, what is the role of registered nurses in relation to the growth and development of other registered nurses in their charge? A. Providing mentorship and guidance B. Ensuring compliance with regulatory standards C. Facilitating professional programs for specialty certification D. Creating a favorable work environment 47. According to the Code of Ethics for Registered Nurses, what should registered nurses do when faced with conflicts between the cultural values of patients and the provision of nursing care? A. Prioritize the welfare and safety of patients B. Respect the cultural values of patients above all else C. Seek guidance from healthcare administrators D. Consult with other healthcare professionals 48. According to the Code of Ethics for Registered Nurses, what should registered nurses do to ensure the quality of nursing care and practice? A. Seek feedback from patients and families B. Continuously update their knowledge and skills C. Collaborate with interdisciplinary healthcare teams D. Comply with regulatory standards and guidelines 49. According to the Code of Ethics for Registered Nurses, what should registered nurses do to effectively render appropriate nursing services? A. Collaborate with other healthcare professionals B. Acquire and develop necessary competence C. Advocate for improved healthcare policies D. Foster a supportive work environment 50. According to the Code of Ethics for Registered Nurses, what is the overarching principle that guides the ethical conduct of registered nurses? A. Respect for individual autonomy B. Commitment to social justice C. Promotion of health and well-being D. Preservation of human dignity 51. A nurse is assessing a patient's immune function. Which of the following terms refers to a substance that induces the production of antibodies? A. Agglutination B. Antibody C. Antigen D. Apoptosis 52. A patient has been diagnosed with a condition that involves the attack of pathogens by T cells. Which immune response is this patient experiencing? A. Cellular immune response B. Humoral immune response C. Phagocytic immune response D. Complement immune response 53. A nurse is teaching a patient about the function of memory cells in the immune system. Which of the following statements accurately describes memory cells? A. Memory cells are responsible for recognizing antigens from previous exposure and mounting an immune response. B. Memory cells are lymphocytes that lyse cells infected with a virus. C. Memory cells decrease B-cell activity to a level compatible with life. D. Memory cells are lymphocytes that defend against microorganisms and malignant cells. 54. A nurse is assessing a patient's immune function. Which of the following terms refers to the coating of antigen-antibody molecules with a sticky substance to facilitate phagocytosis? A. Agglutination B. Opsonization C. Complement D. Apoptosis 55. A patient with a primary immune deficiency is experiencing a gradual deterioration of the immune system due to the aging process. What term is used to describe this phenomenon? A. Agglutination B. Immunosenescence C. Immunoregulation D. Interferons 56. A nurse is caring for a patient with an immune system dysfunction. Which of the following terms refers to the study of diseases resulting from dysfunctions within the immune system? A. Immunopathology B. Immunoregulation C. Immunosenescence D. Interferons
TOP RANK REVIEW ACADEMY, INC. Page 4 | 6 57. A nurse is assessing a patient's immune function. Which of the following cells are important for producing a humoral immune response? A. B cells B. Cytotoxic T cells C. Helper T cells D. Natural killer (NK) cells 58. A nurse is teaching a patient about the process of genetic engineering. Which of the following best describes genetic engineering? A. A process that enables replacement of missing or defective genes B. A process that activates other components of the immune system C. A process that regulates or controls immune responses D. A process that lyses cells infected with a virus 59. A nurse is assessing a patient's immune function. Which of the following terms refers to the specific area of an antigen that binds with an antibody combining site and determines the specificity of the antigen-antibody reaction? A. Agglutination B. Antibody C. Antigenic determinant D. Stem cells 60. A nurse is caring for a patient who has undergone a bone marrow transplant. Which of the following cells are responsible for recognizing self-antigens and maintaining immune tolerance? A. B cells B. Natural killer (NK) cells C. Suppressor T cells D. Memory cells 61. A 45-year-old female patient presents with recurrent respiratory infections, chronic diarrhea, and unexplained weight loss. She reports a history of autoimmune disorders in her family. Upon further investigation, it is discovered that the patient has low levels of immunoglobulins. Which of the following conditions is most likely causing the patient's symptoms? A. Selective IgA deficiency B. Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID) C. DiGeorge syndrome D. Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) 62. A 32-year-old male patient presents with a localized skin rash that is red, itchy, and has raised bumps. The patient reports a history of allergies and has a family history of atopic dermatitis. After examination, the healthcare provider diagnoses the patient with atopic dermatitis. Which of the following immune mechanisms is primarily involved in the development of atopic dermatitis? A. Type I hypersensitivity reaction B. Type II hypersensitivity reaction C. Type III hypersensitivity reaction D. Type IV hypersensitivity reaction 63. A 60-year-old male patient with a history of chronic alcohol abuse presents with abdominal pain, jaundice, and ascites. Laboratory tests reveal decreased serum albumin levels and prolonged prothrombin time. The healthcare provider suspects liver cirrhosis. Which of the following immune mechanisms is involved in the pathogenesis of liver cirrhosis? A. Autoimmune reaction B. Immune complex deposition C. Chronic inflammation D. Alloimmunity 64. A 25-year-old female patient presents with joint pain, swelling, morning stiffness, and fatigue. On physical examination, the healthcare provider observes swelling and tenderness in multiple joints, including the metacarpophalangeal joints and wrists. Laboratory tests reveal elevated rheumatoid factor and anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) antibodies. Which of the following conditions is most likely causing the patient's symptoms? A. Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) B. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) C. Sjogren's syndrome D. Ankylosing spondylitis 65. A neonate is born with recurrent bacterial and fungal infections, failure to thrive, and chronic diarrhea. Laboratory tests reveal low levels of immunoglobulins and absence of lymphoid tissue. Which of the following conditions is most likely causing the neonate's symptoms? A. Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) B. DiGeorge syndrome C. Hyper IgM syndrome D. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome 66. A 55-year-old male presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of weakness on the right side of his body. He is unable to speak properly and has difficulty understanding speech. On examination, his face appears droopy on the right side and he has weakness in his right arm and leg. His vital signs are stable. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Ischemic stroke B. Subarachnoid hemorrhage C. Migraine with aura D. Bell's palsy 67. A 65-year-old female presents to the clinic with complaints of progressively worsening memory loss, difficulty finding words, and getting lost in familiar places. She also experiences changes in mood and personality. On examination, she has impaired judgment, poor insight, and difficulty with problem-solving tasks. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Alzheimer's disease B. Parkinson's disease C. Multiple sclerosis D. Huntington's disease 68. A 30-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after a motorcycle accident. He is unresponsive with decerebrate posturing, dilated pupils, and absent corneal reflexes. His respiratory rate is slow and irregular. What is the most likely cause of his condition? A. Traumatic brain injury B. Spinal cord injury C. Ischemic stroke D. Parkinson's disease 69. A 45-year-old female presents to the clinic with complaints of severe headache, blurred vision, and vomiting. On examination, her blood pressure is elevated, and she has papilledema on fundoscopic examination. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Hypertensive crisis B. Migraine headache C. Acute angle-closure glaucoma D. Increased intracranial pressure 70. A 70-year-old male with a history of hypertension and diabetes mellitus presents to the clinic with complaints of progressive weakness and numbness in his legs. On examination, he has decreased sensation and proprioception in his lower extremities, absent deep tendon reflexes, and a positive Romberg test. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Diabetic neuropathy B. Guillain-Barré syndrome C. Peripheral arterial disease D. Spinal cord compression 71. A 55-year-old female patient presents with recurrent upper respiratory infections, chronic sinusitis, and bronchiectasis. Laboratory tests reveal elevated sweat chloride levels. The patient's medical history is significant for infertility. Which of the following conditions is most likely causing the patient's symptoms? A. Cystic fibrosis (CF) B. Chronic granulomatous disease (CGD) C. Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) D. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome 72. A 30-year-old male patient presents with recurrent bacterial skin infections, abscesses, and impaired wound healing. Laboratory tests reveal neutrophilia and a defective respiratory burst in phagocytic cells. The patient's medical history is significant for recurrent infections since childhood. Which of the following conditions is most likely causing the patient's symptoms? A. Chronic granulomatous disease (CGD) B. Bruton's agammaglobulinemia C. Hyper IgM syndrome D. DiGeorge syndrome 73. A 45-year-old female patient presents with joint pain, fever, and a rash on her cheeks and nose. Laboratory tests reveal elevated antinuclear antibodies (ANA) and anti-double-stranded DNA (anti-dsDNA) antibodies. The patient's medical history is significant for photosensitivity and oral ulcers. Which of the following conditions is most likely causing the patient's symptoms? A. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) B. Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) C. Sjogren's syndrome