Tiêu đề RECALLS 10 - NP4 - SC ✅

1 | Page RECALLS 10 EXAMINATION NURSING PRACTICE IV CARE OF CLIENTS WITH PHYSIOLOGIC AND PSYCHOSOCIAL ALTERATIONS (PART B) NOVEMBER 2025 Philippine Nurse Licensure Examination Review GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS: 1. This test questionnaire contains 100 test questions 2. Shade only one (1) box for each question on your answer sheets. Two or more boxes shaded will invalid your answer. 3. AVOID ERASURES. 4. Detach one (1) answer sheet from the bottom of your Examinee ID/Answer Sheet Set. 5. Write the subject title “NURSING PRACTICE IV” on the box provided ONCOLOGY: ANTI-NEOPLASTIC MEDICATIONS Situation: You are a newly assigned nurse in the oncology ward, familiarizing yourself with different antineoplastic medications. 1. You are aware that there are cell cycle specific drugs that target the different phases and cell cycle nonspecific drugs. Which of the following is not classified as a cell-cycle specific chemotherapy drug? A. Antimetabolic agents B. Mitotic inhibitors C. Topoisomerase inhibitors D. Alkylating agents 2. Most chemotherapeutic drugs are dosed based on total body surface area (BSA). Which action should the nurse take to ensure the patient receives the optimal dose of chemotherapy? A. Ask the patient about their height and weight and calculate BMI. B. Use the rule of nines to estimate BSA. C. Measure abdominal, arm, and leg circumference. D. Obtain the patient’s height and weight. 3. Patient Porky is receiving Capecitabine and experiences dyspnea, rashes all over the body, and tachycardia. The blood pressure is 80/60 mmHg. The nurse suspects an anaphylactic reaction. Which action should the nurse avoid in this situation? A. Stop the medication. B. Raise the client's feet and legs. C. Remove the IV line. D. Administer epinephrine as prescribed. 4. Patient Filmar is a new patient in the outpatient center waiting room and is about to receive chemotherapeutic drugs. The nurse knows that chemotherapeutic drugs have numerous side effects and plans to monitor the patient for untoward symptoms. Which side effect should the nurse anticipate as the most common for this patient? A. Fatigue B. Hair loss C. Nausea and vomiting D. Headache 5. A patient is scheduled to receive another dose of antineoplastic medication. Which laboratory finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider (HCP) that may result in withholding the medication? A. Platelet count: 130,000 mm³ B. Segmented neutrophil count: 18% C. Potassium: 3.4 mEq/L D. Mean Corpuscular Volume: 82 6. The nurse is caring for a patient about to begin antineoplastic treatment. Which action by the nurse demonstrates the preservation of the patient’s psychosocial integrity and requires commendation? A. Inform the client that new hair growth will occur during treatment. B. Discuss the potential effect of infertility, which is reversible. C. Instruct the client about abstinence from sex during treatment. D. Discuss the purchase of a wig before treatment begins. 7. The nurse is reviewing Patient Pernilla’s medication list and notes the she is receiving an antitumor antibiotic. Which medication requires close monitoring for heart failure and dysrhythmias? A. Cisplatin B. Bleomycin C. Daunorubicin D. All of the above 8. A patient is receiving high-dose Methotrexate as part of their chemotherapy regimen. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer to prevent Methotrexate toxicity? A. Leucovorin B. Cytarabine C. Fluorouracil D. Mercaptopurine 9. A patient receiving Oxaliplatin is being assessed by the nurse. Which statement made by the patient requires immediate intervention? A. "I felt too hot that I drank iced water throughout the day." B. "I placed on two pairs of socks because it was cold." C. "I feel nauseous at times." D. "I exercise in my home, and I sweated." ONCOLOGY: COLORECTAL CANCER Situation: Colorectal cancer is becoming increasingly common, with cases rising among younger individuals. Patient Mikay, who loves eating at fine dining restaurants, went to the ER due to abdominal pain and changes in bowel habits. 10. Early detection is key. What is a screening test for colorectal cancer? A. CEA test B. CT scan C. Exploratory laparoscopy D. Colonoscopy 11. The doctor orders a guaiac-based fecal occult blood test (FOBT) for Patient Mikay. Which instruction should NOT be given before the test? A. Warfarin should be discontinued for 24 hours before the exam. B. Vitamin C tablets must be avoided. C. Avoid red meat before the test. D. Raw fruits and vegetables may yield false-positive results. 12. Patient Mikay mentions a family history of colorectal cancer and enjoys eating at fine dining restaurants weekly, with steak as her favorite meal. What dietary instruction can help reduce her risk of colorectal cancer? A. Increase refined carbohydrates. * NLE * NCLEX * CGFNS * HAAD * PROMETRICS * DHA * MIDWIFERY * LET * RAD TECH * CRIMINOLOGY * DENTISTRY * PHARMACY *
2 | Page B. Cook with tallow. C. Increase amounts of brassica vegetables. D. Discourage broiled foods. 13. You auscultate Patient Mikay’s abdomen. Which sound would alert the doctor to a potential bowel obstruction? A. Borborygmus B. Tinkling sounds C. Low-pitched gurgling D. Clicking sounds 14. Mikay undergoes a colonoscopy, and a tumor is found in the transverse colon. Which symptom is most likely indicative of this? A. Hematochezia B. No disruption to bowel patterns C. Gas pains D. Anemia 15. Patient Mikay undergoes surgery for tumor removal and has a temporary colostomy. Which finding should be reported to the physician? A. Mucocutaneous separation B. Stoma protrudes about ¾ inch from the abdominal wall C. Stoma is slightly edematous D. The stoma has not functioned for 24 hours Situation: Elphie Aba, a 45-year-old female, arrives at the emergency room complaining of moderate to severe joint pain with morning stiffness lasting longer than 30 minutes. She sought emergency care due to worsening pain that has become unbearable. 16. Based on the given symptoms, you would suspect that Elphie is to be diagnosed with: A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Osteoarthritis C. Gout D. Osteoporosis 17. Following her diagnosis, you check Elphie’s chart. Which finding is not indicative of her condition? A. Elevated ESR B. Presence of Heberden's nodes C. Rheumatoid Factor - 75 units/mL D. Inflammation of synovial tissue 18. Based on the history assessment, Elphie experienced heart failure five months ago. Which medication, if prescribed by the doctor, should be used with caution and require monitoring? A. Indomethacin B. Methotrexate C. Celecoxib D. Sulfasalazine 19. Elphie mentions she is worried for her Zumba buddy, Linda G, because she has similar symptoms. After their Zumba session, Linda’s joints, specifically her knees and hips, are painful. However, after some rest, she felt fine. What is Linda G most likely suffering from? A. Osteoarthritis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Gout D. Osteoporosis 20. In order to alleviate Linda G's pain and prevent worsening of symptoms, what must she NOT do during acute episodes? A. Use a large pillow under the head or knees B. Immobilize the affected joint with a splint C. Keep linen off of legs and feet D. Avoid flexion of knees and feet GENITOURINARY: UTI Situation: Urinary Tract Infections (UTIs) are becoming more prevalent due to various factors, with patients seeking care at the Emergency Department (ED). 21. There are different ways bacteria can reach the urinary tract. What is the most common route of infection? A. Direct extension B. Hematogenous C. Transurethral D. Transureteral 22. UTI is the most common cause of acute bacterial sepsis in nursing home patients. Among the following individuals, who is most susceptible to developing a UTI? A. A 62-year-old man with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) B. A 55-year-old woman who prefers soda over water C. A fresh-grad nurse who urinates only once per shift D. A 66-year-old woman with an indwelling Foley catheter 23. In a nursing home, which symptom should you watch for in an elderly client suspected of having a UTI? A. Frequency of urination B. Altered sensorium C. Urgency of urination D. High-grade fever 24. One of the aides in the nursing home suspects they have a UTI. Which statement makes it most likely? A. "Ang daming lumalabas pag umiihi ako." B. "Matamis ang amoy ng ihi ko." C. "Masakit ang likod ko." D. "Parang umaapoy yung ihi ko pag lumalabas." 25. The aide was diagnosed with acute UTI and was prescribed sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim for 7 days. What nursing education should you provide? A. Report the presence of dark brown or red urine. B. Safe for breastfeeding moms. C. Wear sunscreen before going out in the sun. D. May decrease the concentration of digoxin. Situation: Nurse Santol, a fresh graduate nurse, is confused between the different disorders of the Genitourinary system. She decides to review the key characteristics and causes of each condition to update her knowledge. 26. A 25-year-old male presents with symptoms of urethral discharge and dysuria. Upon assessment, urethritis is suspected. What is the most common cause of urethritis in men? A. Gonorrhea B. Herpes simplex virus C. Syphilis D. Human papillomavirus (HPV) 27. Nurse Santol is reviewing medications for treating Ureteritis. Which of the following medication-disease pairings is correctly matched? A. Metronidazole for yeast infections B. Clotrimazole for chlamydial infections C. Nystatin for trichomonas infections D. Doxycycline for chlamydial infections 28. A nurse is caring for a patient with pyelonephritis. Which nursing intervention is the most appropriate? A. Provide a high-calorie, high-protein diet. B. Ensure that urinary output is a minimum of 1500 mL/24 hours. C. Provide a cold compress to the flank area to relieve pain. D. Monitor weight weekly. GENITOURINARY: PROSTATITIS Situation: Nurse Ming has a patient scheduled for a transurethral resection of the prostate. To provide the best quality care, she takes time to read and review concepts related to the procedure. 29. Inflammation of the prostate gland is commonly caused by an infectious agent, may it be acute or chronic. What is the most common form of chronic prostatitis? A. Bacterial B. Viral C. Sexual D. Abacterial 30. The final diagnosis of the patient is Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH) and is scheduled for TURP. Which of the following clinical manifestations is not associated with BPH? A. The prostate is large, rubbery, and tender B. Hesitancy in starting urination
3 | Page C. Increased frequency of urination D. Fatigue, anorexia, nausea, and vomiting 31. Transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) is performed. Four hours after surgery, Nurse Ming assesses the patient. Which finding requires immediate notification to the physician? A. Bloody urine drained B. Pain level of 3/10 C. Blood pressure: 90/60, HR: 110 D. Urinary output of 1,400 mL with intake of 1,200 mL 32. A patient with an indwelling Foley catheter (IFC) is at risk for infection. To prevent complications, which of the following practices is incorrect? A. Wash the perineal area with soap and water at least twice a day. B. If the patient is prone to obstructions, use a two-way catheter. C. Use aseptic technique for inserting the catheter. D. Empty the collection bag at least every 8 hours. Situation: You are invited as a guest speaker to discuss genitourinary diseases and their prevention with a diverse audience in a barangay health seminar. The attendees include individuals of different ages and backgrounds. 33. During your talk on urinary disease prevention, which of the following preventive measures should NOT be included? A. Avoid wearing tight clothes and wear silk pants. B. If pregnant, void every 2 hours. C. If menopausal, use estrogen vaginal creams. D. Use water-soluble lubricants for sexual intercourse. 34. During your barangay visit, you perform basic screening tests, including urinalysis using the clean-catch method. Which of the following steps is incorrect? A. Label the specimen completely on the lid. B. Fill the container with 15 mL to 30 mL of urine. C. Void a small amount of urine into the toilet first. D. Male patients are instructed to retract the foreskin and clean the glans of the penis before collecting the sample. Situation: You are assigned to a patient who was admitted for vague periumbilical pain with reports of progression to right lower quadrant pain. 35. The present diagnosis for the patient is appendicitis, what sign does the physician would like to elicit if he palpates the left lower quadrant and paradoxically causes pain to be felt in the right lower quadrant? A. McBurney’s point B. Rebound tenderness C. Rovsing’s sign D. Cecum’s pain 36. The patient complained of constipation, nausea and abdominal pain while waiting for his schedule for surgery, which of the following is contraindicated in his condition? A. Laxative B. Cathartic C. Enema D. All of the above 37. The diagnostic and laboratory findings were uploaded to the system and upon checking, which of the following will you expect to be elevated within the first 12 hours of symptoms? A. C-reactive protein levels B. Urine specific gravity C. Eosinophils D. All of the above 38. Immediate appendectomy is usually indicated once appendicitis is diagnosed, which of the following is true regarding antibiotic prophylaxis for patient undergoing appendectomy? A. Recommended for less than 36 hours for nonperforated appendicitis B. Recommended for less than 18 hours for nonperforated appendicitis C. Recommended for less than 5 days for perforated appendicitis D. Recommended for less than 10 days for perforated appendicitis 39. Post-appendectomy, the nurse should place the patient in which of the following positions? A. Left lateral position, HOB at 45 degrees B. High fowlers position C. Right lateral position, HOB at 45 degrees D. HOB at 30 degrees 40. Aside from pain management, what priority action should the nurse include in her nursing interventions after the patient’s appendectomy? A. Administration of morphine or any parenteral opioid. B. Administration of IV fluids C. Encouraging the patient on use of incentive spirometer for at least every 2 hours. D. Switching from parenteral to oral fluids for hydration once tolerated. Situation: Peptic ulcer diseases may be referred to as gastric, duodenal, or esophageal ulcers, depending on its location. You are handling patients who are diagnosed with PUDs at an outpatient clinic. 41. As you explain the nature of ulcers among the newly diagnosed clients, which of the following will you not include in the patient health education? A. It is an excavation or hollowed-out area that forms in the mucosa of the stomach, duodenum, or esophagus. B. The erosion may extend as deeply as the hypodermis and subcutaneous layer, but not through the muscle layers. C. Peptic ulcers are more likely to occur in the duodenum than in the stomach D. None of the above, all statements are true 42. Aside from H.pylori infection, which of the following will you educate the patients to be considered as a major risk factor for peptic ulcers? A. Alcohol consumption B. Familial tendency C. Smoking D. Use of NSAIDs 43. Generally, how would you identify pain manifestations of a person suffering from peptic ulcer diseases? A. Dull, gnawing pain or a burning sensation in the mid epigastrium or the back. B. Sharp, sudden pain or burning sensation in the mid epigastrium C. Dull ache around the hypogastric area, aggravated by eating. D. Dull and cramping pain in the abdomen, aggravated by eating. 44. A patient came to the clinic with signs of exacerbation and complications from duodenal ulcer, which of the following will you NOT expect to see in the patient? A. Hemorrhage B. Perforation C. Gastritis D. Obstruction 45. For patients with peptic ulcer diseases, the general management is recommended drug therapy combination typically prescribed 10 – 14 days but can extend up to 6 to 8 weeks if it involves complete ulcer healing. If H2-receptor antagonists are prescribed for patients’ ulcer healing, what is the expected duration of maintenance medication for patients who are at high risk? A. 6 months B. 12 months C. 3 months D. 9 months 46. One of your patients was diagnosed with PUD, however, she was also found to be pregnant. Which of the following will alarm you if prescribed to the patient? A. Cimetidine B. Misoprostol C. Omeprazole D. None of the above