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1 THE SECOND TERM TEST (Time allowance: 60 minutes) SECTION I. LISTENING Part 1: Listen to Chris talking to his mom about his future career and decide whether the statement is TRUE or FALSE. Tick (√) the correct boxes. You will listen to the recording TWICE. True False Question 1. Chris says he likes English, science, and IT. Question 2. Chris researches different jobs using his tablet. Question 3. He will need to design, build, and program for his future job. Question 4. Chris practiced programming robots two weeks ago. Question 5. Chris will need to have good organizational and team working skills. Part 2: Listen to a news report about global warming in the Philippines and circle the correct answer A, B, or C. You will listen to the recording TWICE. Question 6. What was Donald's main challenge when online classes started? A. Missing his friends B. Difficulty focusing and technical issues C. Lack of interesting lessons Question 7. What positive outcome did Donald experience from online learning? A. Improved IT skills B. More free time C. Better grades Question 8. Why did Dorothy feel lonely during the pandemic? A. She couldn't use social media B. She missed face-to-face interactions C. She didn't like her classes Question 9. How did Dorothy's teacher help her? A. By giving her extra homework B. By organizing online parties C. By having regular chats about her feelings Question 10. What career inspiration did Dorothy get from her experience? A. Helping young people with emotional problems B. Becoming an IT specialist C. Teaching online classes SECTION II. LANGUAGE FOCUS Part 1: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 11. High parents’ expectations can put children under too much __________. A. depression B. pressure C. bullying D. peer pressure Question 12. With so many different species of plants and animals, the ________ of the area is amazing. A. biodiversity B. conservation C. tropical forest D. habitat Question 13. It’s important to raise people’s __________ of these social issues. A. anxiety B. awareness C. depression D. pressure Question 14. My brother wants to go to the best university _____________ for an engineering degree. A. study B. to study C. having studied D. to studying Question 15. The world is facing many social issues nowadays. _______, we need to work together to solve them. A. Therefore B. In addition C. As a result D. By contrast Question 16. Even as a child, Nga was very __________. She always preferred to do things by herself. A. independent B. reliant C. challenging D. irresponsible Question 17. It was _____________ I saw some amazing caves.

3 and in New York just 44 percent. The psychologists found that, in these cities, people tend to be short of time, so they hurry and often ignore strangers. (Adapted from Complete IELTS by Guy Brook- Hart and Vanessa Jakeman) Question 27: What is the passage mainly about? A. What makes a city friendlier than another. B. An action research on city inhabitants’ behavior. C. How to conduct a survey in a city. D. An interesting survey about cities. Question 28: The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to _______. A. the team B. tests C. locals D. strangers Question 29: According to paragraph 3, Amsterdam and New York’s inhabitants _______. A. pay less attention to strangers B. have more relaxed lifestyles C. don’t have much money D. often commit crimes Question 30: All of the following are mentioned in the study conducted by social psychologists from California EXCEPT ______. A. the study took six years to complete. B. Rio de Janeiro, Vientiane, and Lilongwe are the top three friendliest cities according to the study. C. friendliness in a city is more dependent on the environment than culture or nationality. D. the research shows that people are more helpful in richer cities. Question 31: The word “helpful” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______. A. supportive B. serious C. honest D. polite SECTION IV: WRITING Part 1: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best arrangement of sentences to make a meaningful letter or text in each of the following questions. Question 32. a. Julie: Hello Tim. I am going to the cinema. b. Tim: Wait for me. I think I will come with you. c. Tim: Hi Julie. Where are you going? A. c-a-b B. c-b-a C. a-b-c D. c-b-a Question 33. a. It attracts visitors not only with its breathtaking scenery but also with its rich biodiversity and rare wildlife species. b. This park is known for its limestone karst landscapes and diverse ecosystems. c. Cat Ba National Park is located on Cat Ba Island, about 30 km east of Hai Phong city. A. a-b-c B. c-b-a C. b-c-a D. c-a-b Question 34. a. It helps maintain a healthy weight and reduces the risk of chronic diseases. b. In addition, regular exercise boosts mental health by reducing stress and anxiety. c. But the most important benefit is that it enhances overall well-being and quality of life. d. Nowadays, people are becoming more aware of the importance of staying active. e. If they want to improve their physical fitness, they can engage in activities like jogging, swimming, or yoga. A. d-b-c-e-a B. b-e-a-d-c C. d-e-a-b-c D. d-c-a-b-e Question 35. a. Secondly, add the tea bag or tea leaves to the cup. b. Boil water and let it cool slightly before pouring it into the cup. c. There are several simple steps in making a cup of tea. d. After brewing for a few minutes, remove the tea bag or strain the leaves. e. First of all, prepare a clean cup and spoon. A. c-d-b-a-e B. c-b-e-a-d C. c-a-e-b-d D. c-e-a-b-d Question 36. Dear Micheal, a. Your insights gave me a new perspective and helped me see areas where I could improve.

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