Tiêu đề RECALLS 10 - NP2 - SC ✅

2 | Page V. Cheese curls A. I, II, III, IV B. I, IV, V C. II, III, V D. I, II, III, IV, V 7. Michaela, a local health worker in Brgy. Mariposa, learned about the different sectors of the MMDST (Metro Manila Developmental Screening Test). All of the following are NOT included as sectors of the MMDST except: A. Language B. Emotional-Behavioral C. Sensory Motor D. Play-Social 8. Personal-social is one of the main categories of development in MMDST. Nurse Lucy understands that some tests under the personal-social category can be passed simply by the parents reporting to the nurse whether their child has achieved it at home. Which of the following test questions below cannot be passed by report? A. Ngumingiti na ba ang bata kung kinakausap mo, kahit hindi hinahawakan? B. Nakakakain na ba siya mag-isa ng cracker? C. Inaabot niya ba ang kanyang mga laruan? D. Anu-anong uri ng laro ang sinasalihan niya kasama ng ibang bata? 9. Katrina, a 2-year-old child, is being assessed by Nurse Maria using the MMDST. However, Katrina refuses to participate in the assessment and continues to hide behind her mother. Her mother explains to the nurse that her child is shy with strangers. Which of the following actions should Nurse Maria avoid when dealing with a shy child?" A. Offer the child a cheese curl or a block to play prior to testing. B. Ask the parent to demonstrate some of the test items to the child. C. Start testing with items that are scored by report. D. If all suggestions fail and the test is not complete, retest 3-5 days later. 10. Nurse Maria completed conducting the Metro Manila Developmental Screening Test (MMDST) on Christian, a 6- month-old baby. While interpreting the results, she noted that Christian failed three tests in the gross motor skills category. Nurse Maria's interpretation of the result is: A. Normal B. Questionable C. Abnormal D. Untestable 11. What does the hatch mark in each item bar of the MMDST scoring sheet mean? A. 90% of children in this age group can normally perform and pass the specific item test B. 75% of children in this age group can normally perform and pass the specific item test C. 25% of children in this age group can normally perform and pass the specific item test D. 50% of children in this age group can normally perform and pass the specific item test 12. Nurse Aiah was testing the fine-motor skills of a 5-year-old boy. He was shown parallel lines written by the nurse on the back of the test form. The 2 lines were written of different length, and the child was then asked to point which line he thinks is longer. The nurse then turned the sheet upside down and asked the same question again. This was done for a total of 6 times. He was correct 4 out of 6 times. How should nurse Aiah score the boy? A. Passed B. Failed C. Refused D. No Opportunity 13. Jillian gave birth to a healthy baby boy four hours ago and named him John. The nurse needs to educate her about the importance of fluid intake for newborns, as their extracellular fluid composition differs from that of adults. What percentage of a newborn’s body weight consists of extracellular fluid? A. 15%, compared to 45% in an adult. B. 30%, compared to 80% in an adult. C. 50%, compared to 15% in an adult. D. 35%, compared to 20% in an adult. 14. As a new mother, Jillian is eager to learn all she can about caring for her son. She asks the nurse about the stomach capacity of a newborn. Nurse Andrea is correct if she answered: A. 15 to 30 mL B. 30 to 60 mL C. 60 to 90 mL D. 90 to 120 mL 15. John's lower central incisors erupted when he was six months old. His mother wants to know which tooth is most likely to erupt when he reaches eight months of age. Which of the following is correct? A. Upper lateral incisor B. Lower lateral incisor C. Lower first molar D. Upper central incisor 16. Four months after the eruption of John's lower central incisors, John is able to exhibit all of the following fine motor movement EXCEPT: A. Follows object past midline B. Uses thumb and finger to pick up small objects C. Transfers objects hand to hand D. Holds cup and spoon well 17. Jillian wants to start introducing solid foods to John. What is the correct sequence? I. Vegetables II. Cereal III. Egg yolk IV. Fruit V. Meat A. II, IV, I, V, III B. II, I, IV, V, III C. I, II, IV, V, III D. I, II, IV, III, V Situation: Nurse Chelsea is assigned to the Pediatric Ward of a tertiary hospital with various cases of physiologic aberrations. The following set of questions applies. 18. As a pediatric nurse, you are preparing Faye, a 5-year-old, for a voiding cystourethrogram. During the procedure, Faye starts showing signs of distress. What could be causing her discomfort? A. They exhibit a discomfort to voiding in front of other people. B. The injection of the radiopaque dye feels painful. C. The urinary catheterization procedure is scary for them. D. They feel claustrophobic lying in the MRI machine 19. Wonwoo's mother is worried about his nutrition as a diabetic adolescent. She seeks your guidance to ensure he receives proper nutrition. Which of the following statements
3 | Page is not correct regarding dietary advice for diabetic adolescents?  A. Plan balanced and appealing meals with a daily calorie distribution of 20% breakfast, 20% lunch, 30% dinner, and 10% for morning, afternoon, and evening snacks. B. Encourage your child to avoid concentrated carbohydrate sources like candy bars. C. Provide three meals daily plus snacks, aiming for a caloric distribution of 55% carbohydrates, 30% protein, and 15% fat. D. Ensure they consume complex carbohydrates before exercise. 20. A group of healthcare students is gathered in a classroom for a discussion on pediatric health assessments as part of their clinical skills course. The instructor, Dr. Ramos, poses a question to the class to test their knowledge on preventive care guidelines for children. At what age should you start to include blood pressure as a routine procedure? A. 8 months B. 15 months C. 36 months D. 72 months 21. A family with a child diagnosed with cerebral palsy is struggling to find appropriate educational resources and support services. What advice should Nurse Chelsea provide to them on creating a supportive home environment and promoting the developmental needs of their child with cerebral palsy? A. The cause of cerebral palsy is genetic disorder. B. All children with cerebral palsy are cognitively challenged. C. Cerebral palsy may be associated with neonatal hyperbilirubinemia. D. Cerebral palsy occurs more frequently in infants born from occipitoanterior rather than posterior birth positions. 22. Gavin, a young child with sickle-cell disease, needs careful watching for acute exacerbations of his condition. Which type of crisis is particularly dangerous because it can cause severe fluid loss and potentially life-threatening shock? A. Vaso-occlusive crisis B. Hemorrhagic crisis C. Aplastic crisis D. Splenic sequestration 23. What fetal growth and development can be seen in the 8th gestational week? A. The primitive tail is regressing. B. Spontaneous movements are possible, although they are usually too faint to be felt by the mother. C. Fetus actively swallows amniotic fluid D. The back is bent so that the head almost touches the tip of the tail 24. The first breath of a neonate is initiated by a low PO2 and high PCO2 level. This is directly caused by? A. High lung pressure of 40 to 70 cm H2O B. Normal adaptation of neonate to extrauterine life C. Closure of the foramen ovale and ductus arteriosus D. Cutting of the umbilical cord 25. What do you call an abnormal pulse pattern characterized by a very forceful and bounding pulse, commonly seen in patients with patent ductus arteriosus? A. Pulsus alternans B. Water hammer C. Picrotic D. Corigen's pulse Situation: Denise Julia is pregnant with her second child. During her first pregnancy, she did not attend childbirth classes and she received an epidural for the birth. During a prenatal visit, Julia tells you that she would now like to have a natural birth at home. She asks you for information on childbirth education courses. 26. Denise Julia is considering using a Dick-Read method for birth. What is the main principle of Dick-Read childbirth? A. Pain can be interrupted before it registers in the brain as pain. B. Woman’s partner should play an important role during pregnancy, labor, and the early newborn period. C. Decreased sensory stimuli transmission from the abdominal wall reduces labor pains. D. Prevention of fear results in reduction of labor contraction pains. 27. What do you call the type of birthing wherein women give birth without any health care provider supervision? A. Couples birth B. Home birth C. Single birth D. Veco birth 28. What is the main advantage of home birth? A. The pregnant woman is encouraged to become knowledgeable about the birth process and be an active participant. B. The pregnant woman can give birth in a familiar environment. C. The baby can be immediately integrated into the family. D. The cost of a home birth is low. 29. Perineal and abdominal exercises are important to strengthen pelvic and abdominal muscles and make these muscles stronger and more supple during birth. As a nurse, how can you teach Denise Julia to perform Tailor Sitting? A. Sit on the floor and place one leg in front of the other. Arch your back for 1 minute then hollow your back. B. Sit on the floor and put one ankle on top of the other. Gently push on your knees toward the floor until you feel your perineum stretch. C. Sit on the floor and put one ankle on top of the other. Arch your back for 1 minute then hollow your back. D. Sit on the floor and place one leg in front of the other. Gently push on your knees toward the floor until you feel your perineum stretch. 30. One method of pain control during labor is called 'Consciously Controlled Breathing.' This method suggests that different breathing patterns can help reduce pain depending on the stage of labor. What type of breathing should Denise Julia A. Light and rapid breathing at a rate of 40 breaths per minute. B. Shallow and rapid breathing at a rate of 50 to 70 breaths per minute. C. Take three quick breaths then forcefully exhale. D. Slow chest breathing at a rate of 6-12 breaths per minute. 31. A patient with hypothyroidism comes to the clinic concerned about a positive home pregnancy test, but she reports no symptoms of pregnancy. She is currently taking medication for anxiety and also uses oral contraceptives. Which of the following factors is LEAST likely to contribute to a false-positive result on her home pregnancy test? A. Her current antianxiety medication B. Elevated levels of protein in her urine C. Her use of oral contraceptives D. A history of hypothyroidism
4 | Page 32. A pregnant woman in her second trimester is discussing common pregnancy changes with her healthcare provider. They discuss how the vaginal environment changes to protect the developing fetus. The change in vaginal pH during pregnancy from alkaline to acidic is primarily due to: A. Increased estrogen levels altering glandular vaginal secretions B. The shift in the vaginal flora due to increased Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG) C. The metabolic activity of Lactobacillus acidophilus producing lactic acid D. A decrease in the production of alkaline mucus components Situation: You are working at a prenatal clinic. Jamaica, a single woman who is 4 months pregnant, asks you about teratogens and their possible effects on pregnancy. The following set of questions applies. 33. Jamaica is worried about contracting toxoplasmosis since she is responsible for cleaning her cat's stool daily. She asks you about the possible effects of this infection on her baby. What is the correct answer? A. Hydrocephalus, chronic liver disease, and blueberry- muffin lesions B. Pulmonary stenosis, cleft palate, and thrombocytopenic purpura C. Microcephaly, intracerebral calcification and retinal deformities. D. Extreme rhinitis, oddly shaped teeth, rashes 34. Pregnancy risk category C includes drugs for which animal studies have shown adverse effects on the fetus, but adequate studies in humans are unavailable. Which of the following drugs is an exception to this category? A. Bufferin B. Tannate C. Gentamicin D. Ethambutol 35. Which antihypertensive drug lowers blood pressure in a normal adult but can cause oligohydramnios when taken during pregnancy? A. Orinase B. Tegison C. Etretinate D. Capoten 36. Nina, a 19-year-old woman, fell off her bike causing her to feel intense pain in her pelvic area. Her doctor orders her to be scheduled for a pelvic x-ray examination. When should a woman in a childbearing age be scheduled for pelvic x-ray examinations? A. First 10 days of a menstrual cycle B. During ovulation period C. 3 to 5 days after menstruation D. None of the above 37. These are teratogens in pregnancy. Which is a socially accepted teratogen that can cause major damage to a fetus? A. Smoking B. Cocaine C. Alcohol D. Over the counter drugs 38. A pregnant woman, Hannah, is experiencing frequent urination and pain, likely due to a urinary tract infection (UTI), which is common in pregnancy because of hormonal changes. The nurse must educate Hannah about a medication she should strictly avoid during pregnancy, as it can retard bone growth and stain the fetal teeth. Which of the following medications should the nurse advise Hannah to avoid? A. Ampicillin B. Sulfanilamide C. Tetracyclines D. Ceftriaxone 39. What is the narrowest diameter of the pelvis at the outlet? A. Transverse diameter B. Diagonal conjugate C. Ischial spine D. Symphysis pubis 40. Which of the following fetal skull areas have the narrowest diameter which can easily pass through both the pelvic inlet and outlet? A. Occipitomental B. Biparietal C. Suboccipitobregmatic D. Occipitofrontal 41. Nurse Anne performed a Leopold's Maneuver to a pregnant woman. During the procedure, Anne felt a plain mass at the right side of the mother and heard the FHR on the lower segment of the uterus. What is the fetal position? A. LSaA, breech presentation B. RSaA, breech presentation C. LOA, cephalic presentation D. ROA, cephalic presentation 42. The cardinal movements of labor is the passage of a fetus through the birth canal involving several different position changes to: A. Prevent umbilical cord prolapse through assuring an engaged fetal station. B. Allow maximum contraction time and assist with vaginal birth through the pelvic canal. C. Maintain vertex presentation and not allow misalignment of fetal position. D. Keep the smallest diameter of the fetal head parallel to the smallest diameter of the pelvis. 43. Abdominal ultrasound shows that the fetus hips are flexed but the knees are extended to rest on the chest. The buttocks alone present to the cervix. What is the fetal presentation? A. Single-footling breech B. Frank breech C. Double-footling breech D. Complete breech 44. Solana, a new and breastfeeding mother, chooses intramuscular injections as her method of reproductive life planning. Which of the following is not true in regard to this method? A. One of the advantageous effects of Depo-Provera is reduction in the frequency of sickle cell crises B. Medroxyprogesterone Acetate may impair glucose tolerance in women at risk for diabetes. C. Medroxyprogesterone Acetate should be avoided if you are breastfeeding D. Women taking Depo-Provera are advised to maintain a high calcium diet. 45. Josephine is 38 weeks pregnant and wants to use an IUD for contraception after giving birth. When is the optimal time for her to have the IUD fitted? A. 6 weeks after birth B. 3 months after birth C. At her second postpartum checkup D. Immediately after birth 46. Seventeen-year-old Joannah visits your community health clinic seeking advice on contraception methods. If she chooses to use a combination oral contraceptive (COC) for family planning, which of the following side effects are CORRECT? I. Nausea II. Monilial vaginal infections