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Amicus Law Academy Advocateship MCQ Exam-2025 Full Marks: 100 Set Code: 13910183 Time: 50 Min 1. Section 339B of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1898 does not apply to - a) proclaimed offender. b) person released on bail. c) fugitive offender d) none of these 2. Code of Criminal Procedure: Police Report means- a) Report lodged in the Police station. b) Report sent by officer in charge to superior officer. c) A report forwarded by police officer to a magistrate under s.173 (1) of Cr.P.C.,1898 d) A report forwarded by police officer to a magistrate under s.173 (2) of Cr.P.C.,1898 3. A contracts to supply B‘s factory with all the coal it needs for the next five years, and B agrees to pay monthly. After one year, A wants to stop and B seeks specific performance for the remaining term. Will B succeed? a) Yes – A will be ordered to specifically perform the 5-year supply contract. b) Yes – but only for the portion of the contract that remains within 3 years of its start. c) No – contracts involving continuous duties extending over more than 3 years cannot be specifically enforced. (Correct) d) No – B must instead seek damages for breach of a long-term supply contract. 4. Any private person may arrest any person who in his view commits- a) a non-bailable and cognizable offence. b) cognizable offence, or any proclaimed offender. c) a non-bailable and cognizable offence, or any proclaimed offender. d) any proclaimed offender. 5. Any proceeding in the course of which evidence is or may be legally taken on oath is called- a) judicial proceeding b) investigation c) inquiry d) sworn statement 6. X has committed theft. Which of the following charge will be legal against him? a) S. 379 only b) S. 411 only c) S. 379 & 411 d) Ss. 379 & 380 7. Complaint can be filed in respect of – a) Cognizable offence b) Non-cognizable offence c) Both (a) and (b) d) Either (a) or (b) 8. How much punishment may be awarded to an accused who is found guilty under a summary trial? a) not exceeding 2 years b) not exceeding 1 year c) not exceeding 6 months d) not exceeding 3 months 9. In proceeding under s.107 of Cr.P.C. an executive Magistrate may require to execute a bond for keeping peace for such period, not exceeding- a) 1 year b) 2 years c) 3 years d) 6 months 10. Anticipatory Bail under s.498 of Cr.P.C. means – a) a direction to release a person on bail issued after a person is arrested b) a direction to release a person on bail issued before a person is arrested is in apprehension of arrest. c) a direction to release a person on bail from judicial custody. d) a direction to release a person on bail from police custody. 11. Under S.494 of Cr.P.C., at which stage withdrwal from prosecution can be sought- a) before the settlement of issues b) at any time even after the judgment is pronounced. c) at any time before the judgment is pronounced. d) before the framing of charge only. 12. The power to direct investigation under section 156(3) of Cr.P.C. can be exercised by – a) A Magistrate b) A session Judge c) A High Court d) Joint Session Judge 13. The provision of ̳Substitute of Service‘ is mentioned in the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, Order V, Rule_______? (a) 21 (b) 19 (c) 22 (d) 20 14. Order 47 deals with which of the following legal remedies? a) Appeal b) Revision c) Reference d) Review 15. To set aside the forfeiture under s. 99B of the Cr.P.C., application may be made to- a) High Court division b) Appellate Divions c) Ministry of Law d) Ministry of Home Affairs 16. Who is authorized to appoint public prosecutor in case of absence of public prosecutor? a) Government b) Executive Magistrate c) District Magistrate d) High Court Division 17. Who can exercise the Power to compel restoration of abducted females child under the age of 16 years under 552 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1898? a) Metropolitan Magistrate b) Magistrate of the first class c) District Magistrate d) All the above 18. Who can commute the sentence of imprisonment for life without consent of the accused under Cr.P.C.,1898? a) Government b) President c) Attorney General d) Chief Justice 19. Under which section of the CrPC, 1898 an accused person can himself be a competent witness? a) S.342 b) S. 344 c) S.340 d) S.343 20. Where any period of limitation for filing an application is not specifically mentioned in The Limitation Act, 1908, Article ______shall be applicable. (a) 121 (b) 180 (c) 142 (d) 181 21. CPC: Which of the following statement is false? a) Those who is not entitled to property worth 5000 taka is called pauper. b) Rr.1 and 2 of Or.39 provided grounds for Temporary application. c) All types of civil suit can be entertained by District Judge as court of Origin. d) S.12 bars to further suit. 22. Suit for the partition of immovable property shall be instituted in the court within the local limits whose jurisdiction- a) legal heirs are situated b) property is situated. c) plaintiff resides d) defendant resides 23. What is the primary condition for issuing an order under Order 38 Rule 5? a) The defendant is absconding without a decree b) Defendant has a criminal record c) Defendant is about to dispose of property to defeat a possible decree d) Plaintiff is a government servant
24. Where a suit is abated or dismissed under Or. XXII of the CPC on the same cause of action- a) new suit may be instituted. b) new suit may be instituted with the consent of the parties. c) fresh suit may be may be filled with prior permission of the court. d) no fresh suit shall be brought. 25. Where the decree is for the partition of an undivided estate assessed to the payment of revenue to the Government the partition of the estate or the separation of the share shall be made by- a) the Collector b) the Court which passed the decree c) the Court of Execution d) the Receiver appointed 26. Attachment before judgment is governed by which rule? a) Order - XL , rule - 6 b) Order -XXXIX , rule - 5 c) Order - XXXVIII , rule – 5 d) Order - XXXVIII , rule – 6 27. A pauper is referred to as a person who: a) Is a criminal b) Has no fixed address c) Is unable to pay court fee d) Is under trial 28. A minor can sue only through: a) His father b) A next friend c) The judge d) The defendant 29. The decree of Restitution of Conjugal Rights can be enforced under the following provision of the Code of Civil Procedure? a) Or. XXI, R-33 b) Or. XXI, R-32 c) Or-XXI, R-35 d) Or. XXI, R-34 30. Precepts are issued under s.46 of the CPC for- a) Serving summons on persons residing beyond local jurisdiction b) Serving summons on persons residing beyond Bangladesh c) Serving warrant on Judgment debtor d) Attaching the property of the Judgment Debtor 31. According to Or. XXVI, R-9 of the CPC,1908, the Court may issue a commission- a) to examine any person & to make a partition. b) to make a local investigation; c) to examine or adjust accounts; or d) All the above 32. The Principal of Res Judicata can be invoked- a) only in separate proceeding b) also in subsequent stage of the same proceeding. c) depends upon fact and circumstances d) none of the above 33. What is the maximum amount of fine a court may impose if anyone disobeys a Summons made under Section 30 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908? (a) 200 (b) 1000 (c) 100 (d) 500 34. Can appeal lie from an order rejecting an application for setting aside ex parte decree? a) No b) Yes, under Order 43 c) Only after permission from High Court d) Only after review 35. According to s. 139 of the CPC. 1908 oath on affidavit by whom to be administered? (a) any Court or Magistrate, (b) any officer or other person whom the Supreme Court may appoint in this behalf, (c) any officer appointed by any other Court d) all the above 36. Which of the following actions may be taken to execute a decree of suit for specific performance of contract, which the judgment debtor has willfully failed to perform and obey? (a) Detained in civil jail or attachment of property or both (b) Only detained in civil jail (c) Only attachment of property (d) Detained in civil jail and attachment of property 37. After dismissal of suit under Or. IX, R-8 of CPC, a fresh suit on the same cause of action under Or. IX, R-9 of CPC is- a) barred. b) not barred. c) depended on circumstances. d) all the above. 38. If the investigating officer of a case submits a final report after the investigation, if the Magistrate is not satisfied with the said report, which Order of the Magistrate is correct? (a) Re-investigation (b) Further investigation (c) Fresh investigation (d) Instruction for filing charge-sheet 39. Which of the following section deals with unauthorised persons not to Address Court? a) S.119 of CPC b) 143 of CPC c) 148 of CPC d) 131 of CPC 40. What provision of the Code of Civil Procedure , 1908 deals with Judgment on admissions? a) Order - XII , rule - 6 b) Order - XXI , rule - 3 c) Order - XXII , rule – 2 d) Order - XXIII , rule - 3 41. Under section 22 of the Limitation Act,1908 a suit is deemed to have been instated , in case of a new plaintiff added- a) on the date on which the new plaintiff is added b) on the date on which the suit was initially instituted. c) on the date on which the application was made to add new plaintiff. d) none of the above. 42. ̳X‘ sees a 500 Taka Note on the highway. ̳X‘ spends the money without first trying to find the owner. In such circumstance, ̳X‘ is liable to what offence? (a) No offence committed (b) Criminal breach of trust (c) Criminal Misappropriation of property (d) Theft 43. What section of the Limitation Act, 1908 deals where once time has begun to run, no subsequent disability or inability to sue stops it? a) section-9 b) Section 8 c) Section- 7 d) Section- 6 44. What section of the Limitation Act, 1908 provides nothing in section 6 or in section 7 applies to suits to enforce rights of pre- emption, or shall be deemed to extend, for more than three years from the cessation of the disability or the death of the person affected thereby, the period within which any suit must be instituted or application made a) section-9 b) Section 8 c) Section- 7 d) Section- 6 45. Section 17 of the Limitation Act, 1908 does not apply to- a) suits for the pre-emption b) suits for the possession of immoveable property c) suits for the hereditary office. d) all the above 46. Day of pronouncement of Judgment is: a) Included in limitation b) Excluded c) Counted twice d) Ignored
47. In a suit the plaintiff shows that the right was peaceably and openly enjoyed by him for twenty years. The defendant proves that the plaintiff, on one occasion during the twenty years, had asked his leave to enjoy the right. The suit – a) shall be adjourned b) shall be dismissed. c) shall be proceed for exparte disposal of d) None of the above. 48. The limitation for enforcement of a right of pre-emption is: a) 3 years from date of agreement b) 1 year from registration c) 1 year from taking possession d) 6 months from mutation 49. The period of limitation for filing a petition of appeal against sentence to High Court division is- a) 20 days b) 30 days c) 90 days d) 60 days 50. The period of limitation for filing an application for any order to set aside abatement is- a) 20 days b) 30 days c) 90 days d) 60 days 51. Best evidence rule is exclusively associated with the rule laid down in- a) Section 62 of the Evidence Act,1872 b) Section 90 of the Evidence Act,1872 c) Section 93 of the Evidence Act,1872 d) Section 91 of the Evidence Act,1872 52. A witness who is unable to speak, gives his evidence in an open court in the written form, it is a – a) Documentary Evidence b) Oral Evidence c) Inadmissible Evidence d) Secondary Evidence 53. According to section 151 of the Evidence Act, 1872 the witness cannot be asked – a) Baseless Questions b) Unreasonable questions c) Indecent and scandalous questions d) Above all 54. According to Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 Guardian ad Litem means- a) A Local Commissioner b) A Court c) A person defending suit on behalf of Minor Defendant d) A person appointed by the Court for defending suit on behalf of Minor Defendant 55. What section of the Evidence Act, 1872 stated that evidence may be given in any suit or proceeding of the existence or non- existence of every fact in issue and of such other fact as are hereinafter declared to be relevant, and of no others? a) s.5 b) s.14 c) s.47 d) s.22 56. What section of the Evidence Act, 1872 deals with Witness not excused from answering on ground that answer will criminate? a) s.147 b) s.131 c) s.132 d) s.148 57. Section 96 of the Penal Code provides that nothing is an offence if: a) Done in national interest b) Done under mistake of law c) Done in private defence d) Done in panic 58. Which of the following could be proved as dying declaration after the death of a person? a) FIR lodged by the person deceased. b) Statement of the person deceased to police recorded under s.161 Cr.P.C., 1898 c) Statement of the person deceased recorded by the Executive Magistrate. d) All of these. 59. Which of the following documents are public documents under Evidence Act, 1872? a) public records kept in Bangladesh of private documents. b) the record of official bodies and tribunals, c) the record of public officers, legislative, judicial and executive of any part of Bangladesh or of the Commonwealth, or of a foreign country; d) all the above 60. A, a connection of B, produces deeds relating to lands in B's possession which were deposited with him by B for safe custody. Here the Custody is- a) proper. b) not proper c) defective d) none of these 61. Under which section of the Penal Code, 1860, a person may be held liable to punishment who refuses to assist a police officer in making an arrest? (a) 187 (b) 186 (c) 188 (d) 189 62. No particular number of witnesses shall in any case be required for the-----Fill up the gap according to section 134 of the Evidence Act,1872 a) proof of any fact. b) proof of any fact in issue. c) proof of any material fact. d) proof of any relevant fact. 63. According to section 133 of the Evidence Act, 1872 which of the following statement is not correct? a) An accomplice shall be a competent witness. b) Uncorroborated testimony of an accomplice is acceptable. c) Uncorroborated testimony of an accomplice is not acceptable. d) a conviction is not illegal merely because it proceeds upon the uncorroborated testimony of an accomplice. 64. Which of the following questions lawful in cross-examination under s.146 of the Evidence Act, 1872. a) to test his veracity, b) to discover who he is and what is his position in life c) to shake his credit, by injuring his character d) all the above 65. Any question suggesting the answer which the person putting it wishes or expects to receive is called a ------- Fill up the gap according to section 141 of the Evidence Act,1872 a) Leading questions b) Hostile Questions c) Material Questions d) Mandatory Questions 66. Who can form Ad-hoc Bar Council? a) the Government may, by notification in the official Gazette, b) Bar Council may, by notification in the official Gazette, c) High Court Division may, by notification in the official Gazette, d) Appellate Division may, by notification in the official Gazette, 67. Which one of the following conducts is the violation of professional etiquette of an advocate? a) An Advocate shall not commingle the property of a client with his own. b) An Advocate in his professional capacity shall not advise the violation of any law. c) It is the duty of an Advocate to maintain towards the courts a respectful attitude d) Junior members should sometimes be respectful to senior members. 68. Which of the following one is not the function of the Bangladesh Bar Council? a) to lay down standard of professional conduct and etiquette for advocates; b) to safeguard the rights, privileges and interest of family of advocates on its roll; c) to manage and invest the funds of the Bar Council; d) to order punishment for misconduct