Tiêu đề RECALLS 10 - NP3 - SC ✅

2 | Page A. It is determined by the blood pressure. The higher the blood pressure, the higher the hydrostatic pressure. B. Low hydrostatic pressure could lead to development of peripheral edema. C. It is determined by albumin. The higher the albumin, the higher the hydrostatic pressure. D. High hydrostatic pressure could lead to development of hypervolemia and pulmonary congestion.   15. Cardiovascular risk increases with cigarette smoking. If a patient reported smoking 3 cigarette sticks per day for 5 years, and 8 cigarette sticks for 4 years, compute for the pack-years.    A. 3 years and 2 months B. 2 years and 4 months C. 1 year and 6 months D. 3 years and 1 month   16. Nurse Eva notes a request for electrocardiogram for a patient. The rhythm strip shows flat T waves and presence of U waves. Nurse Eva knows that this condition could lead to the toxicity of which among the following medications?    A. Lidocaine B. Dobutamine C. Digoxin D. Furosemide   17. Nurse Eva is aware that morphine is the priority medication administered to a client who suffers from myocardial infarction. The mechanism of action of morphine in this specific clinical event is:    A. Morphine is a superior analgesic for chest pain because it is an opioid. B. Morphine is a central nervous system depressant which increases blood pressure. C. Morphine is a potent vasoconstrictor, thereby increasing coronary blood flow. D. Morphine has a dilating effect on blood vessels that reduce cardiac demand.   18. An adult female client requests for an Electrocardiogram tracing. Which of the following ECG readings would suggest that the client is experiencing myocardial ischemia?   A. Pathologic Q wave B. T wave inversion C. ST segment elevation D. QRS widening   19. Nurse Eva received a patient with a history of myocardial infarction and cardiac tamponade. The following are the signs and symptoms of cardiac tamponade except:    A. Hypotension B. Distant heart sounds C. Bradycardia D. Jugular vein distension   20. Nurse Eva assess the ECG rhythm of a patient. She observed an atrial rate of 200 per minute, narrow QRS complex, and a sawtooth appearance. Which among the following is a correct ECG interpretation?    A. Atrial fibrillation B. Ventricular tachycardia C. AV block D. Atrial flutter   21. Nurse Eva is caring for a client with left-sided congestive heart failure. When developing a nursing care plan for this client, which among the following interventions should not be involved?    A. Health education regarding high-fiber and low-sodium diet. B. Provide small and frequent feedings. C. Offer a bed pan rather than a bed commode for elimination. D. Monitor for signs of pulmonary edema.   22. One of the patient’s ECG rhythm suddenly showed a flat or straight line. The following actions by the code team is correct except:    A. Start chest compressions. B. Deliver 200 Joules of shock. C. Monitor and document the time. D. Assess ECG rhythm every 120 seconds.   23. Nurse Eva is reading the ECG of a patient. She observes a dysrhythmia characterized by random, chaotic discharging of impulses within the ventricle at rate that exceed 300 beats per minute. She infers that the patient has which ECG rhythm?    A. Supraventricular tachycardia B. Atrial flutter C. AV block D. Ventricular fibrillation   24. During the cardiac arrest event, the health care team must also attempt to assess for the possible reversible causes that could be addressed. The following are the reversible causes of cardiac arrest except:    A. Very low body temperature B. An accumulation of hydrogen ions in the blood C. SaO2 of 80% D. Severe fluid volume congestion   25. A client with a medical diagnosis of atherosclerosis of the popliteal artery manifests with intermittent claudication, low grade pulse, and ulcers at the toes. Based on the presenting signs and symptoms, which among the following is the priority nursing diagnosis for the client?  * A. Ineffective peripheral tissue perfusion related to reduced vascular lumen. B. Impaired skin integrity related to decreased venous circulation. C. Fluid volume deficit related to fluid shifting into interstitial space. D. Chronic pain related to insufficient tissue oxygenation. Situation – Nurse Carlo is caring for mechanically ventilated patients in the medical ward of Hospital A. The following questions apply:   26. Nurse Carlo knows that for a patient to be a candidate for mechanical ventilation, at least one of the following must be assessed or observed, except:   A. PaO2 < 50 mmHg, FiO2 > 0.60 B. Respiratory rate > 35/min C. PaO2 < 50 mmHg, pH < 7.25 D. Vital capacity < 2 times tidal volume   27. A patient’s mechanical ventilator is being maintained with low positive-end expiratory pressure (PEEP). Nurse Carlo understands that this is a measure to prevent which of the following complications?   A. Hypotension B. Tracheal necrosis C. Pneumothorax D. Atelectasis   28. The following are modes of ventilation that can be applied to patients. Which of the following is used when spontaneous respiratory effort of patient is “locked out”?    A. Assist/Controlled Ventilation (A/C) B. Synchronized Intermittent Mandatory Ventilation (SIMV) C. Continuous Positive Airway Pressure (CPAP) D. Controlled Ventilation   29. Suddenly, a mechanical ventilator of a patient had triggered a high-pressure alarm. The following are possible reasons except:   
3 | Page A. Kinked tubing B. Pneumothorax C. Increased lung compliance D. Plug   30. To prevent ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP), the following practices are considered acceptable and evidence- based except:    A. Oral care with chlorhexidine B. DVT prophylaxis with anti-embolic stockings C. PUD prophylaxis with enoxaparin D. Head of bed elevation   31. Nurse May interprets the rhythm strip of a patient who underwent electrocardiogram. Which of the following waves represent ventricular depolarization?   A. P wave B. QRS complex C. T wave D. ST segment   32. Nurse May reads the ECG rhythm of a patient as having torsades de pointes. Which of the following medications must she expect to be ordered immediately?    A. Magnesium B. Atropine C. Sodium bicarbonate D. Vasopressin   33. Which of the following ECG rhythms warrant immediate defibrillation?    A. Ventricular tachycardia B. Ventricular fibrillation C. Asystole D. Atrial fibrillation   34. AV blocks occur when the conduction of the impulse through the AV node is decreased. The following statements are true about AV blocks except?    A. First-degree AV block occurs when the atrial impulses are conducted at a slower rate. B. In second-degree block Type I, conduction shows increasing intervals until full blockage. C. In second-degree block Type II, PR interval is constant. D. Third-degree block occurs when no ventricular pulse is conducted. 35. Nurse May is operating a pacemaker with a NASPE-BPEG code. Which of the following is meant by the letter “D”?* A. Both the atrium and the ventricle have a pacing electrode in place. B. The pacemaker is sensing the activity of the ventricle only. C. The pacemaker is sensing the activity of the atrium only. D. The pacemaker’s stimulating effect is inhibited by ventricular activity. Situation – You are a newly employed nurse in the Central ICU. As part of your orientation, you should be familiarized with the emergency drugs needed in the ICU. The following questions apply. 36. As you scan through the emergency cart, you saw Dopamine. Recalling your undergraduate years, you remembered dopamine can serve as two functions: renal vasodilator and a vasopressor. Which dose would have an effect of renal vasodilation to patients?* A. 1-10 mcg/kg/min B. 2-20 mcg/kg/min C. 1-5 mcg/kg/min D. >20 mcg/kg/min 37. Your co-worker asked you some favor to re-compute for her the rate needed for her patient. In this way, she can verify that her computations were correct. The following details were given to you: Preparation: 200mg/5ml Total Volume:100ml Weight: 15 kg Dose: 2mcg/kg/min A. 4.5 ml/hr B. 5.5 ml/hr C. 6 ml/hr D. 7 ml/hr 38. Another nurse was testing your computation skills. She asked you to compute the dose of Dobutamine with the following details: Preparation: 250mg/20mL Total Volume: 100mL Weight: 15kg Rate: 1.8mL/hr A. 0.75 mcg/kg/min B. 0. 16 mcg/kg/min C. 0.25 mcg/kg/min D. 0.5 mcg/kg/min 39. Heparin is given to patient. The doctors order is to give 10,000 units/cc to be diluted to 115 ml diluent at a rate of 18 cc/hr. Compute for the dose to be given. A. 156 units/ml/hr B. 1565 units/ml/hr C. 1456 units/ml/hr D. 68888 units/ml/hr 40. Heparin concentration from the previous patient stated above is also needed. You as a nurse you compute an arrive at the correct answer which is? A. 1150 units B. 1180 units C. 158 units D. 87 units Situation – You are a nurse who works in the critical care unit setting and are required to cater to all sort of patients. 41. One of your patients has a pacemaker system implanted. This uses a bipolar epicardial lead system. What is true about this device? A. Contains positive and negative electrodes B. Contains only a negative electrode C. Implanted within the skin of the patient D. This has a wide sensing area 42. You notice that another patient is experiencing symptomatic bradycardia. You initiate giving atropine but the ECG reading still does not normalize. What can you do to attain an acceptable ECG reading from the patient? A. Recommend application of cardiac pacing to the physician B. Initiate transcutaneous cardiac pacing C. Prepare a defibrillator D. Call the physician immediately 43. Your patient is on temporary pacing. His pacing mode is described as synchronous with atrial and ventricular pacing, and ventricular sensing. Atrial and ventricular pacing are inhibited if there is spontaneous ventricular depolarization. What pacing mode is this? A. A00 B. D00 C. DVI
4 | Page D. DDD 44. You know that a demand pacing mode means the following except: A. Delivers a pacing stimulus at a set rate B. Delivers a pacing stimulus only when the heart’s intrinsic pacemaker fails C. A predetermined rate is set D. Pacing stimulus activity is determined by the sensing of intrinsic activity 45. You are modifying your patient’s pacemaker settings and have to determine the threshold of the device. Everything is true about thresholds of pacemakers except? A. Depolarization occurs at this point B. Determining the threshold involves losing the 1:1 capture C. The threshold to pace is less than 1 mA D. This is the ability of the pacemaker to detect the heart’s intrinsic electrical activity 46. Your patient is on mechanical ventilation. The machine is there to assist the patient with breathing. As a nurse, you are familiar with the anatomy and physiology of the lung. Which is true about the effects of gravity and alveolar pressure on pulmonary blood flow? (Pa = arterial pressure; PA = alveolar pressure) A. Zone 1 involves Pa>PA B. Zone 3 involves Pa>PA C. Zone 1 is where blood flow occurs in the lungs D. Zone 2 has fluctuating blood flow dependent on arterial and venous pressures 47. Your patient is being monitored with a capnography at the bedside. You notice that the PETCO2 is increased. The following can be possible causes for this except? A. Respiratory depression B. Hyperthermia C. Sepsis D. Hypothermia 48. A patient is on mechanical ventilation. As a nurse, you are expected to understand and know how to manipulate mechanical ventilators. Which variables maintains inspiration? A. Trigger B. Cycle C. Limit D. Baseline 49. Which of the following variables ends the inspiration? A. Trigger B. Cycle C. Limit D. Baseline 50. Your patient has a stable respiratory drive to overcome any imposed mechanical resistance. He is able to have spontaneous breaths but it is not yet enough to provide his body with adequate oxygenation. What mode of ventilation is the most appropriate for this patient? A. Volume-assured pressure support ventilation B. Airway pressure release ventilation C. Adaptive support ventilation D. Pressure support ventilation 51. Your patient is in acute respiratory distress and was placed on mechanical ventilation. You except the tidal volume to be set with the following: A. 6-10 mL/kg B. 4-8 mL/kg C. 7-10 mL/kg D. 4-6 mL/kg 52. You need to set the amount of effort the patient must generate to initiate a ventilator breath. This can be done through pressure-triggering or flow-triggering. What parameter will you have to control to achieve this? A. Sensitivity B. High pressure limit C. Pressure support D. PEEP 53. Your patient is no longer in acute respiratory distress and is being considered for weaning from mechanical ventilation. Obtaining his rapid shallow breathing index (RSBI) will give you an idea of weaning success. The patient’s respiratory rate is 30 breaths per minute, and his weight is 50 kg. If his tidal volume is set at 7 mL/kg, calculate his RSBI: A. 88 breaths/min/L B. 86 breaths/min/L C. 12 breaths/min/L D. 13 breaths/min/L 54. You can interpret the previously calculated RSBI as? A. Successful weaning B. Unsuccessful weaning C. Inconclusive D. Monitor more before weaning 55. Your RSBI is calculated at 104. The patient’s conventional weaning parameters were obtained and they are within weanable values. What is the next step? A. Recommend removing the patient from mechanical ventilation B. Prepare the equipment for extubation C. Perform a spontaneous breathing trial D. Nothing 56. Which of the following weaning methods can you consider for your patient? A. Pressure support ventilation B. Continuous mandatory ventilation C. Adaptive support ventilation D. Independent lung ventilation 57. When the patient was undergoing weaning, you noticed that his spontaneous tidal volume was at 350 mL, with a heart rate of 100. His SPO2 is also found to be 91%. What action should you take next? A. Stop weaning because the patient is unable to tolerate this B. Continue weaning due to no indication of weaning intolerance C. Increase the patient’s FiO2 D. Position the patient in an upright position Situation – Nurse Lexi is caring for multiple patients with respiratory problems in the emergency department of Lorenzo General Hospital. The following questions apply. 58. While inspecting the chest of a client, she assessed that the anteroposterior diameter is exactly the same as the lateral diameter. This implies that the client has:* A. Pigeon chest B. Normal chest C. Barrel chest D. Pectus excavatum 59. Nurse Lexi assessed that the patient has tracheal shifting to the right. The following respiratory conditions are possible causes of the tracheal deviation except: A. Pleural effusion of the left lung field B. Empyema thoracis of the right lung field C. Atelectasis of the right lung field D. Pleural fibrosis of the right lung field   60. One of the physical characteristic of blood is its temperature being