Nội dung text RECALLS 7 - NP5 - SC
A. Apply gentle pressure B. Call the nephrologist immediately C. Elevate the arm above the heart D. Remove the fistula needle 17. What should the nurse avoid with an AV fistula arm? A. Taking blood pressure B. Placing a tourniquet C. Drawing blood samples D. All of the above 18. Which finding in a dialysis patient suggests disequilibrium syndrome? A. Headache and confusion B. Hypotension and dizziness C. Chest pain and palpitations D. Joint pain and muscle cramps 19. Which fluid is commonly used to prime a dialysis circuit? A. Lactated Ringer’s B. 0.9% Normal saline C. Dextrose 5% in water D. 0.45% Normal saline 20. A patient on peritoneal dialysis reports severe abdominal pain during inflow. What is the best response? A. Increase dialysate flow rate B. Warm the dialysate solution C. Stop dialysis immediately D. Add extra potassium to the solution Situation: You are managing pharmacologic interventions and monitoring lab results to prevent complications of end-stage renal disease (ESRD). 21. Which medication is often given to dialysis patients to prevent anemia? A. Epoetin alfa B. Heparin C. Warfarin D. Iron dextran only 22. A patient with CKD is prescribed calcium acetate. What is its purpose? A. Lower potassium levels B. Increase iron absorption C. Bind phosphorus in the gut D. Raise serum calcium levels 23. What is the priority nursing assessment before starting hemodialysis? A. Serum amylase B. Lung sounds C. Vital signs and weight D. Pain scale 24. A patient with peritoneal dialysis has outflow less than inflow. What is the first nursing action? A. Stop the dialysis B. Turn the patient side to side C. Call the nephrologist D. Add heparin to the solution 25. What is a major complication of hemodialysis needle dislodgment? A. Infection B. Air embolism C. Severe hemorrhage D. Hypokalemia Situation: You are addressing symptoms related to chronic uremia, evaluating hemodynamic changes post-dialysis, and preventing life-threatening complications. 26. A patient on hemodialysis has severe itching (uremic pruritus). Which is the best nursing action? A. Restrict fluids B. Give antihistamines as prescribed C. Apply ice packs D. Encourage high-protein diet 27. Which finding is expected after dialysis? A. Weight gain B. Lowered blood pressure C. Hyperkalemia D. Edema increase 28. A patient on hemodialysis is ordered heparin during treatment. What is its purpose? A. Reduce blood pressure B. Prevent clotting C. Increase potassium removal D. Treat anemia 29. Which is the most serious complication of peritoneal dialysis? A. Hypotension B. Peritonitis C. Nausea D. Constipation 30. A patient undergoing dialysis develops chest pain. What should the nurse do first? A. Stop dialysis and notify the provider B. Increase fluid removal C. Encourage deep breathing D. Give antiemetics You are managing dialysis access and monitoring for vascular and metabolic complications, ensuring patient safety and access function. 31. Which drug is commonly given to control high phosphate in CKD? A. Calcium acetate B. Furosemide C. Epoetin alfa D. Sevelamer 32. Which AV fistula assessment finding should be reported immediately? A. Bruit present B. Thrill present C. Cool pale hand below the fistula D. Slight bruising around site 33. Which dialysis patient is at highest risk for hypotension during treatment? A. One who ate a large meal before dialysis B. One who is slightly hypertensive C. One who had fluid overload corrected slowly D. One who is already volume-depleted 34. Which sign indicates successful AV fistula function? A. No bruit or thrill B. Weak radial pulse C. Palpable thrill and audible bruit D. Edema around the site 35. Which action prevents peritonitis in peritoneal dialysis? A. Use of cold dialysate B. Strict hand hygiene during exchanges C. Increasing dwell time D. Avoiding daily weight checks Situation: You are assigned to monitor fluid balance and electrolyte status in dialysis clients and intervene for post-treatment complications. 36. Which symptom after dialysis indicates hypovolemia? A. Flushed skin and bounding pulse B. Dry mucous membranes and dizziness C. High blood pressure and edema D. Warm, moist skin 37. Which medication should be hold before dialysis? A. Antihypertensives B. Phosphate binders C. Vitamin D supplements D. Erythropoietin 38. Which patient statement about peritoneal dialysis needs teaching? A. “I need to keep my catheter clean and dry.” B. “If the fluid comes out cloudy, I will call the clinic.” C. “I will skip daily weight checks to save time.” D. “I should warm the solution before using it.” 39. Which lab result is expected in end-stage renal disease? A. Metabolic alkalosis B. Low BUN and creatinine C. Hyperkalemia and metabolic acidosis D. Hypophosphatemia 40. Which sign after peritoneal dialysis indicates peritonitis? A. Clear effluent and soft abdomen B. Cloudy effluent and abdominal pain C. Weight gain and hypertension D. Minimal drainage with clear fluid 2 | Page
D. Case report 64. What is the population? A. All post-op patients B. Orthopedic post-op patients C. Physiotherapy staff D. Nursing students 65. Which instrument measures pain intensity? A. Morse Fall Scale B. Numeric pain rating scale C. Apgar score D. GCS Situation: You are the charge nurse on a medical-surgical unit during a busy shift. Four patients need attention: (1) a patient with COPD reporting shortness of breath, (2) a patient with blood glucose 320 mg/dL waiting for insulin, (3) a post-op cholecystectomy patient with pain score 8/10, and (4) a patient with stage 2 hypertension waiting for medications. 66. Which patient do you see first? A. COPD patient with dyspnea B. Hyperglycemic patient C. Post-op pain patient D. Hypertensive patient 67. Which action for the COPD patient is most urgent? A. Administer pain medication B. Position in high Fowler’s C. Provide orange juice D. Offer emotional support 68. Which task can be delegated to a nursing assistant? A. Blood glucose monitoring B. Adjusting oxygen flow C. Pain assessment D. Teaching breathing techniques 69. Which intervention for the hypertensive patient is correct? A. Encourage fluid restriction immediately B. Administer antihypertensives as ordered C. Place in Trendelenburg position D. Give a high-sodium snack 70. Which documentation is a priority for the post-op patient? A. Surgical site drainage B. Pain score and intervention C. Family’s questions D. Time of last meal Situation: A 65-year-old diabetic patient presents to the ER with foot ulcers, fever 38.5°C, and BP 90/60 mmHg. Blood glucose is 420 mg/dL. The patient is confused and has poor peripheral pulses. 71. What is the first priority? A. Treat the fever B. Start fluid resuscitation C. Administer sliding-scale insulin D. Obtain wound culture 72. What does confusion most likely indicate? A. High anxiety B. Pain C. Hypoperfusion D. Neuropathy 73. Which wound assessment is most important? A. Wound color B. Wound odor C. Wound size D. Surrounding tissue perfusion 74. Which order should the nurse question? A. IV normal saline bolus B. Sliding scale insulin C. High-dose corticosteroids D. Wound culture before antibiotics 75. Which complication is most likely? A. Retinopathy B. Sepsis C. Osteoarthritis D. Cushing’s syndrome Situation: You are assigned to four post-operative patients after abdominal surgeries. One client has an NG tube connected to suction, one has a urinary catheter draining minimal urine, one reports increasing abdominal pain unrelieved by analgesics, and one is requesting discharge teaching about wound care. 76. Which patient should you assess first? A. Patient with unrelieved abdominal pain B. Patient requesting discharge teaching C. Patient with NG tube to suction D. Patient with minimal urine output 77. What does minimal urine output after surgery usually indicate? A. Infection is present B. Patient has renal failure C. Low perfusion or hypovolemia D. Catheter obstruction is expected 78. Which action is safe to delegate to a nursing assistant? A. Assess abdominal distention B. Empty the urinary catheter bag C. Evaluate NG tube placement D. Perform discharge teaching 79. Which teaching point is priority for the client with an NG tube? A. Frequent hand hygiene B. Avoidance of chewing gum C. Need to maintain tube placement and suction D. Taking laxatives to prevent constipation 80. What is the best documentation for the client with pain? A. “Patient seems uncomfortable” B. “Patient complains of pain” C. “Pain score 8/10, analgesic given, reassessment planned in 30 min” D. “Gave morphine” Situation: You are working in the ED with multiple trauma clients after a bus accident: (1) a client with suspected cervical spine injury and shallow respirations, (2) a client with an open femur fracture bleeding heavily, (3) a client with abdominal pain rating 7/10, and (4) a client with minor scalp lacerations. 81. Which client do you assess first? A. Cervical spine injury client B. Femur fracture client C. Abdominal pain client D. Scalp laceration client 82. Which intervention is priority for the femur fracture client? A. Give pain medication B. Apply direct pressure to the wound C. Elevate the head of the bed D. Perform neurological checks 83. Which client is stable and can wait? A. Cervical spine client B. Femur fracture client C. Abdominal pain client D. Scalp laceration client 84. Which team member is best for splint application under supervision? A. Experienced nursing assistant B. Student nurse C. Respiratory therapist D. Charge nurse only 85. What is most important to document for the cervical spine injury client? A. Pain score and medication B. Neuro status and airway management C. Patient’s emotional response D. Time of arrival Situation: On a medical-surgical floor, you have patients with different conditions: (1) pneumonia on IV antibiotics, (2) post-thyroidectomy client reporting hoarseness, (3) diabetic with foot ulcers awaiting dressing change, (4) client with chronic back pain requesting additional opioids. 4 | Page