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Nội dung text DIAGNOSTIC EXAM - NP2 (SC)



TOP RANK REVIEW ACADEMY, INC. Page 3 | hindi nagawa” D. “Gagawa tayo ng paraan na mapauwi ka ng maaga para di mo na maalala ang mga pinagdaanan mo dito” 26. Which of the following is a proper description for Placenta Accreta? A. Premature separation of the placenta of the uterine wall after the twentieth week of gestation and before the fetus is delivered B. The placenta penetrates the uterine muscle itself C. An abnormally adherent placenta D. Placenta goes all the way through the uterus. 27. A nurse in the labor room is preparing to care for a client with hypertonic uterine contractions. The nurse is told that the client is experiencing uncoordinated contractions that are erratic in their frequency, duration, and intensity. The priority nursing intervention in caring for the client is to: A. Provide pain relief measures B. Prepare the client for an amniotomy C. Promote ambulation every 30 minutes D. Monitor the oxytocin infusion closely. 28. Jenny, a nurse, is performing an initial assessment on a client who has just been told that a pregnancy test is positive. Which assessment finding would indicate that the client is at risk for preterm labor? A. The client is a 36- year old primigravida B. The client has a history of cardiac disease C. The client’s haemoglobin level is 13.5 g/dL D. The client is a 20year old primigravida of average weight and height. 29. A nurse in a labor room is monitoring a client with dysfunctional labor for signs of fetal or maternal compromise. Which of the following assessment findings would alert the nurse to a compromise? A. Maternal fatigue B. Coordinated uterine contractions C. Progressive changes in the cervix D. Persistent non-reassuring fetal heart rate 30. A client in labor is transported to the delivery room and prepared for ta caesarean delivery. After the client is transferred to the delivery room table, a nurse places her in: A. Supine position with a wedge under the right hip B. Trendelenburg’s position with the legs in stirrups. C. Prone position with the legs separated and elevated D. Semi-Fowler’s position with a pillow under the knees. SITUATION: Grounded theory is a general inductive method that is not inextricably linked to a particular theoretical perspective or type of data. Grounded theory researchers seek to understand the actions in a substantive area from the perspectives of those involved. 31. The nurse researcher comprehends that people who pioneered studies in grounded theory includes the following apart from? A. Glaser & Strauss B. Strauss & Corbin C. Corbin& Tanner D. None of the above 32. Coding in Glaserian grounded theory approach is used to conceptualize data into patterns. The nurse- researcher incorrectly identifies conceptualization of the substance of the topic under study as: A. Substantive codes B. Open codes C. Selective codes D. Theoretical codes 33. In-vivo codes are directly derived from the language of the substantive area. The nurse-researcher correctly identifies these codes as: A. Level I B. Level II C. Level III D. Level IV 34. In grounded theory approach, data analysis employs: A. Domain analysis B. Constant comparative analysis C. Componential analysis D. Taxonomic analysis 35. The six (6) C’s in families of theoretical codes for grounded theory analysis developed by Glaser (1978) excludes: A. Contingencies B. Covariances C. Continuum D. Consequences 36. The nurse is teaching a postpartum client about breast-feeding. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? A. Prenatal vitamins should be discontinued. B. The diet should include additional fruits. C. Organic, hypoallergenic soap should be used to cleanse the breasts. D. Galactagogues should be avoided. 37. A nurse is planning to care for a post-partum client who had a vaginal delivery 2 hours ago. The client had a 4cm midline episiotomy and has several haemorrhoids. What is the priority nursing diagnosis for this client? A. Acute pain B. Disturbed body image C. Impaired urinary elimination D. Risk for imbalanced fluid volume. 38. A nurse is caring for four 1-day postpartum clients. Which client has an abnormal finding that would require further intervention? A. The client with mild afterpains rated 4/10 B. The client with a pulse rate of 70 beats per minute C. The client with colostrum discharge from both breasts D. The client with lochia that is red and has a foul smelling color. 39. Robi, a nurse, is providing postpartum instructions to a client who will be breast- feeding her newborn. Which of the following determines that the client understood the instructions? Select all that apply. 1. “magsusuot ako ng bra na may suporta” 2. “Nakakasama ang pag-inom ng alak para sa aking gatas-ina” 3. “Ang kape ay maaaring makakapagpababa ng aking gatas-ina” 4. “Sisimulan ko ang pag-inom ng estrogen pills pag karating sa amingbahay” 5. “Alam ko na kung ang aking suso ay panandaliang lumaki, ihihinto ko ang pagpapasuso”
TOP RANK REVIEW ACADEMY, INC. Page 4 | 6. “Iinom ako ng maraming tubig upang maparami ang aking gatas-ina” A. 1, 6, 5, 3 B. 1, 2, 3, 6 C. 2, 3, 4, 5 D. 3, 4, 5, 6 40. A prolapsed umbilical cord is when the umbilical cord is displaced between the presenting part and the amnion or protruding through the cervix, causing compression of the cord and compromising fetal circulation. Which of the following assessment findings are not indicative of a prolapsed cord? A. The client has a feeling that something is coming through the vagina. B. Umbilical cord is visible or palpable C. Sweating, cool and damp skin D. Fetal heart monitor shows variable decelerations or bradycardia after rupture of the membranes. Situation: Joshua is a public health nurse assigned in the family planning clinic. Rose, a 19 year old client reported that she has been sexually active for one year and is asking about family planning methods. 41. Nurse Joshua talks to the client regarding Natural Family Planning Methods which are based on scientific facts on fertility. Which of the following are not natural methods of FP? A. Sympto-Hormonal Method (SMH) B. Sympto-Thermal Method (STM) C. Cervical Mucus Method (CMM) D. Modified Pomeroy Method (MPM) 42. BBT is another natural FP method. Which of the following is not true about this method? A. The basal body temperature of a woman is higher before ovulation, until it decreases to a lower level beginning around the time of ovulation. B. After her ovulation, her BBT typically rises slightly and stays in a slightly higher range until her next period begins. This slight increase in BBT from ovulation until menstruation is a sign that she ovulated during this cycle. C. The BBT of a woman is lower before her ovulation, until it rises to a higher level beginning around the time of ovulation. D. Women who are able to have at least 3 hours of continuous sleep every day at almost the same time can use BBT. 43. The Ovulation Method or “OM” entails having to observe the changes in color, consistency and amount of discharge. Which of the following is not true? A. During infertile days, the uterine cervix secretes a discharge which is thick and scanty in which sperm survival is poor. B. On fertile days, discharge is thin and copious. This type of discharge is conducive for sperm penetration and survival and subsequent fertilization. C. During the woman’s fertile period, she feels dry and sees stretchy and clear discharge. D. During the woman’s fertile period, the discharge nourishes and provides a channel for sperm to reach the egg. 44. CycleBeads™ represents the woman’s menstrual cycle. Each bead represents a day of her cycle. Which of the following is true? A. The RED bead marks the first day of menstrual period. B. The WHTE beads represent the days when the woman can have intercourse and not become a. pregnant. C. The BROWN beads are the days when a woman can become pregnant. D. The CHOCOLATE BROWN bead helps you know if your cycle is less than 24 days long. 45. Nurse Josh stated that the Lactational Amenorrhea Method (LAM) was not applicable for Rose. The LAM method: A. Is for non- breastfeeding mothers B. Is for mothers whose menstruation has returned (this does not include the spotting that occurs 56 days post partum) C. Is for mothers whose infant is more than 24 weeks old D. Is considered as a temporary, short-term method. 46. Which of the following is a proper description for Placenta Accreta? A. Premature separation of the placenta of the uterine wall after the twentieth week of gestation and before the fetus is delivered B. The placenta penetrates the uterine muscle itself C. An abnormally adherent placenta D. Placenta goes all the way through the uterus. 47. A nurse in the labor room is preparing to care for a client with hypertonic uterine contractions. The nurse is told that the client is experiencing uncoordinated contractions that are erratic in their frequency, duration, and intensity. The priority nursing intervention in caring for the client is to: A. Provide pain relief measures B. Prepare the client for an amniotomy C. Promote ambulation every 30 minutes D. Monitor the oxytocin infusion closely. 48. Jenny, a nurse, is performing an initial assessment on a client who has just been told that a pregnancy test is positive. Which assessment finding would indicate that the client is at risk for preterm labor? A. The client is a 36- year old primigravida B. The client has a history of cardiac disease C. The client’s haemoglobin level is 13.5 g/dL D. The client is a 20year old primigravida of average weight and height. 49. A nurse in a labor room is monitoring a client with dysfunctional labor for signs of fetal or maternal compromise. Which of the following assessment findings would alert the nurse to a compromise? A. Maternal fatigue B. Coordinated uterine contractions C. Progressive changes in the cervix D. Persistent nonreassuring fetal heart rate 50. A client in labor is transported to the delivery room and prepared for ta caesarean delivery. After the client is transferred to the delivery room table, a nurse places her in: A. Supine position with a wedge under the right hip B. Trendelenburg’s position with the legs in stirrups. C. Prone position with the legs separated and elevated D. Semi-Fowler’s position with a pillow under the knees.

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