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1 | Page Prepared by: GARCIA, RHYAN P. ROMAN, HANNAH GISELLA RECALLS EXAMINATION 4 NURSING PRACTICE II Care of Healthy/ At Risk Mother and Child MAY 2025 Philippine Nurse Licensure Examination Review GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS: 1. This test questionnaire contains 100 test questions 2. Shade only one (1) box for each question on your answer sheets. Two or more boxes shaded will invalid your answer. 3. AVOID ERASURES. 4. Detach one (1) answer sheet from the bottom of your Examinee ID/Answer Sheet Set. 5. Write the subject title “NURSING PRACTICE I” on the box provided 1. A healthy baby boy was born at full term to Mrs. Kimpapara. He weighed 7 lbs at birth and was vigorous, crying and moving shortly after delivery. Which of the following is the most likely weight range for him at 6 months old? A. 14 lbs B. 21 lbs C. 10 lbs D. 12 lbs 2. By the end of the first year of an infant, what proportion of its adult size has the brain reached, and which measurement best reflects this rapid growth? A. One-third; Body weight B. One-half; Chest circumference C. Two-thirds; Head circumference D. Three-quarters; Abdominal girth 3. Infants are prone to physiologic anemia around 2 to 3 months of age. Which of the following best explains the reason for this occurrence? A. The infant's rapid growth spurt leads to increased blood volume, diluting red blood cells B. The infant cannot keep up with the oxygen demand in the environment C. Red blood cells from birth begin to break down, and new production is not yet sufficient. D. The yellow marrow temporarily ceases red blood cell production. 4. Baby Lily is 6 months old. Her parents are excited to see her first tooth erupt. Based on typical development, which tooth is most likely to appear first? A. An upper lateral incisor B. A canine C. A lower central incisor D. A third molar 5. Four-year-old Kyudi loves to play with his invisible friend, Self the dragon. He talks to Self, includes him in his games, and even sets a place for him at the dinner table. Which developmental stage is Kyudi most likely in? A. Toddler B. Preschool C. School-age D. Adolescent 6. Matmat, who is 4 years old, constantly asks questions. When teaching his mother about communication skills in children of this age, the nurse should state that a child of Matmat`s age typically asks how many questions in a day? A. Around 50 to 100 B. 150 to 200 C. 300 to 400 D. 700 or more 7. A school nurse is preparing a health education presentation for fourth-grade students. What is the youngest age at which the nurse should discuss the possibility of menarche occurring? A. 7 years old B. 9 years old C. 11 years old D. 13 years old. 8. A patient asks Nurse Menstruana about the typical length of a menstrual cycle. Which of the following is the most commonly cited average duration? A. 21 days B. 25 days C. 28 days D. 35 days 9. A 16-year-old girl, Sarah, is concerned about the amount of her menstrual flow. The nurse explains the typical range of menstrual blood loss. Which of the following represents that typical range? A. 10-20 ml B. 30-80 ml C. 100-150 ml D. 200-250 ml 10. A patient describes the odor of her menstrual flow as being somewhat like a particular flower. Which of the following descriptions is most consistent with typical menstrual odor? A. Similar to roses B. Similar to marigolds C. Similar to lilies D. Similar to violets 11. Sarah, who is pregnant with her first baby, asks her nurse why she needs a RhoGam shot. Which of the following explanations by the nurse is most accurate regarding the purpose of RhoGam? A. RhoGam alters the baby's blood type from Rh positive to Rh negative. B. RhoGam stops the mother's body from creating antibodies against Rh-positive blood. C. RhoGam blocks Rh antibodies from harming the newborn. D. RhoGam eliminates Rh antibodies in the mother who has Rh-positive blood. 12. A woman with Rh-negative blood receives RhoGAM to prevent her body from developing antibodies against Rh- positive blood. Besides pregnancy, in which of the following situations would an Rh-negative woman most likely receive a RhoGAM injection? A. A 29 year old woman who has spontaneous abortion * NLE * NCLEX * CGFNS * HAAD * PROMETRICS * DHA * MIDWIFERY * LET * RAD TECH * CRIMINOLOGY * DENTISTRY * PHARMACY *
2 | Page Prepared by: GARCIA, RHYAN P. ROMAN, HANNAH GISELLA B. A 35 year old woman who had injury from a car accident C. A 26 year old woman who had a blood transfusion after a hemorrhage D. A 30 year old woman who underwent unsuccessful artificial insemination procedure 13. Sobrang Latina is an Rh-negative woman in her third trimester of pregnancy. Her doctor has explained the importance of RhoGAM to prevent Rh sensitization. At what times during her pregnancy and postpartum period should Maria expect to receive RhoGAM injections, assuming her baby is Rh-positive? A. 12 weeks gestation and within 24 hours after birth B. 20 weeks gestation and within 48 hours after birth C. 28 weeks gestation and within 72 hours after birth D. 36 weeks gestation and within 96 hours after birth 14. Sarah is currently 39 weeks pregnant. Her doctor tells her that she is considered "at term." Which of the following best defines the gestational period considered a term pregnancy? A. 36 to 40 weeks B. 37 to 41 weeks C. 38 to 42 weeks D. 39 to 43 weeks 15. A 32-year-old Mother Kyudi presents with vaginal bleeding and severe nausea and vomiting. Ultrasound reveals a uterus enlarged beyond expected gestational age, but no fetal heartbeat is detected. Laboratory tests show significantly elevated levels of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), far exceeding the levels typically seen in a healthy pregnancy. Based on these findings, which of the following conditions is the most likely diagnosis? A. Ectopic pregnancy B. Hydatidiform mole C. Placenta previa D. Threatened abortion 16. Mariah Karekare, a 30-year-old woman, comes to the clinic complaining of vaginal spotting and sharp, colicky pain in her lower abdomen. She tells the nurse, Susanah, that her period is two weeks late. Nurse Susan should recognize the need for Maria to be investigated for what health problem? A. Fibromyalgia B. Ectopic pregnancy C. Cervical cancer D. Trichomonas Vaginalis 17. Rural health nurse, Moodylin, is leading a community education session about premenstrual syndrome (PMS). What self-care recommendation should Moodylin emphasize for managing PMS symptoms? A. Reduce fluid intake. B. Increase the frequency and intensity of exercise. C. Minimize stress to lessen symptoms. D. Use opioid pain medication as prescribed. 18. Community health nurse, Carol, is giving a presentation on menopause and women's health. She's discussing ways to prevent bone fractures related to osteoporosis. Which dietary supplements should Carol recommend? A. Vitamin B12 and vitamin C B. Vitamin A and potassium C. Vitamin B6 and phosphorus D. Calcium and vitamin D 19. During a health check-up, Nurse Lisa learns that 22-year- old patient, Sarah, is using miconazole (Monistat). Based on this information, Nurse Lisa can reasonably assume that Sarah is being treated for which condition? A. Bacterial vaginosis B. Human papillomavirus (HPV) C. Candidiasis D. Toxic shock syndrome (TSS) 20. Registered Nurse, Sharon, is conducting a community health class focused on women's health. Today's topic is cervical cancer. She wants to ensure the participants understand the most significant risk factor for developing this type of cancer. Which of the following should Sharon emphasize as the most crucial risk factor for cervical cancer? A. Having children later in life. B. Infection with the Human Papillomavirus (HPV). C. Experiencing bleeding after menopause. D. Using tobacco products. 21. Nurse, Maria, is performing a routine prenatal check-up on Jessica, who is 38 weeks pregnant. During the assessment, Maria uses a Doppler to listen to the baby's heartbeat. She notes that the fetal heart rate is 174 beats per minute. Based on this finding, what is Maria's priority nursing action? A. Document the finding in the chart. B. Notify the obstetrician (OB) immediately. C. Check Jessica's heart rate. D. Reassure Jessica that the baby's heart rate is normal. 22. Nurse Emily is providing discharge instructions to Maria, a new mother who delivered a healthy baby boy. Maria asks Emily about when she can expect her bowel function to return to normal after childbirth. What time frame should Emily give Maria as a reasonable expectation for the return of normal bowel function? A. 3 days postpartum B. 7 days postpartum C. On the day of birth D. Within 2 weeks postpartum 23. New mother, Alice, has just delivered a healthy baby via cesarean section. The postpartum nurse, Rachel, is providing Alice with discharge instructions. Which of Alice's statements indicates that she needs further teaching? A. "I will begin doing abdominal exercises right away to get my stomach back in shape." B. "I will call my doctor if I develop a fever." C. "I will turn on my side and push up with my arms to get out of bed." D. "I won't lift anything heavier than my baby for the next 2 weeks." 24. Postpartum nurse, Juvia, is assessing Lucy, who delivered a healthy baby girl a few hours ago. During the assessment, Juvia notices that Lucy`s uterus feels soft and boggy. Based on this finding, what is the initial action Lucy should take? A. Document the finding. B. Elevate Lucy`s legs. C. Massage the fundus until it is firm. D. Push on the uterus to assist in expressing clots. 25. Maternity unit nurse, Jontis, is visiting her patient, Sarah, who is pregnant and has been diagnosed with preeclampsia. Which assessment finding by Jontis indicates a worsening of Sarah's preeclampsia and requires notification of her primary healthcare provider? A. Sarah's urinary output has increased since her last visit. B. Sarah's dependent edema, previously present, has resolved. C. Sarah's blood pressure reading is now consistent with her pre-pregnancy baseline. D. Sarah reports experiencing a headache and blurred vision. 26. Nurse, Maria, is caring for 6-year-old, Leo, who is recovering from a tonsillectomy. Leo complains of a dry throat. Which of the following would be the most appropriate for Maria to offer Leo? A. Cool cherry Kool-Aid B. A glass of cold milk

4 | Page Prepared by: GARCIA, RHYAN P. ROMAN, HANNAH GISELLA 41. Which of the following best describes placenta previa? A. Premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall. B. Abnormal implantation of the placenta in the lower part of the uterus. C. The umbilical cord inserting into the placenta abnormally. D. The placenta growing through the uterine wall and attaching to other organs. 42. Previana asks Nurse Plapla what the most common symptom of placenta previa is. What is the most accurate response? A. Abdominal pain with contractions. B. Painless vaginal bleeding, typically in the third trimester C. Severe, dehydrating nausea and vomiting D. Abnormal separation of the placenta from the uterus, causing severe pain and dark red vaginal bleeding 43. Nurse Previana is caring for Plapla, who has just been diagnosed with placenta previa after experiencing painless vaginal bleeding. Which of the following procedures is most commonly used to diagnose placenta previa? A. Ultrasound B. Digital or speculum examination C. External fetal monitoring D. Xray 44. Previana knows that several interventions are crucial for managing this condition. Which of the following is NOT an immediate care measure typically implemented for a patient with placenta previa? A. Placing the patient on bed rest in a side-lying position. B. Attaching external fetal monitoring equipment. C. Inserting an internal fetal or uterine monitor. D. Monitoring urine output frequently. 45. Which of the following statements BEST demonstrates Nurse Previana's application of knowledge regarding placenta previa and delivery options? A. "Since you're so close to your due date, we'll likely proceed with a cesarean section regardless of the placenta's position to ensure the safest delivery." B. "We'll need to schedule an amniocentesis to determine fetal lung maturity, and if the lungs are mature, a vaginal delivery will be possible even if the placenta is completely covering your cervix." C. "An ultrasound will be performed to precisely measure the percentage of cervical os covered by the placenta. If the placenta covers less than 30% of the opening, a vaginal delivery might be possible." D. "Because you've had a previous cesarean birth, a vaginal birth is absolutely contraindicated with placenta previa; therefore, we will schedule a repeat cesarean section." 46. Nurse Janjan is explaining the physical characteristics associated with Down Syndrome to Lou. Which of the following statements BEST demonstrates Nurse Janjan's understanding of these features? A. "Children with Down Syndrome often have a single crease in their palm and a protruding tongue due to a smaller oral cavity." B. "The extent of cognitive impairment in children with Down Syndrome can be determined at birth by assessing their head circumference and muscle tone." A. C/ "Low-set ears, an upward slant to the eyes, and a flat back of the head are common features, but these will likely disappear as the child grows older." B. D) "Children with Down Syndrome typically have an extra fold of skin at the outer corner of their eyes and white spots on the iris of their eyes." 47. As a competent nurse, Jajan knows that the approximate incidence of Down Syndrome in pregnancies for women older than 35 is? A. 1 in 800 B. 1 in 100 C. 1 in 500 D. 1 in 200 48. Lou asks Nurse Janjan about the life expectancy of individuals with Down Syndrome. Which response by Nurse Janjan is MOST appropriate? A. "Individuals with Down Syndrome typically live into their 20s or 30s due to the severity of their health problems." B. "While life expectancy is variable, many individuals with Down Syndrome now live into their 50s and 60s, and advancements in medical care continue to improve this." C. "Life expectancy is impossible to predict as it depends entirely on the severity of the individual's cognitive impairment." D. "Due to their increased risk of leukemia, most individuals with Down Syndrome do not survive childhood." 49. What is a common internal health problem that children with Down Syndrome may be born with? A. Kidney disease B. Congenital heart disease C. Lung abnormalities D. Seizures 50. Nurse Eula, is caring for Mr. Nomnom’s newborn who has just been diagnosed with Down syndrome. Eula is educating the healthcare team about the common physical features associated with this condition. Which of the following is a common physical characteristic of newborns with Down syndrome that Nurse Eula would want the team to recognize? A. Spastic neck muscles B. An unusual pattern of palm creases C. A white lock of forehead hair D. Wrinkles on the soles of the feet Scenario: Nurse Ange works the night shift in the pediatric unit of a busy metropolitan hospital. Tonight, the unit is full, with a diverse range of patients presenting various medical needs. 51. Nurse Ange is reviewing the medical record of a young infant, baby missy. The primary health care provider (PHCP) has noted a suspected diagnosis of Hirschsprung's disease. Considering the typical presentation of this condition, which of the following signs would most likely have prompted the parents to seek medical attention for their child? A. Regurgitation of feedings B. Foul-smelling, ribbon-like stools C. Projectile vomiting D. Diarrhea 52. Nurse Ange is handling a newborn, baby Vincent. A diagnosis of esophageal atresia with tracheoesophageal fistula is suspected. Based on her knowledge of this condition, Nurse Ange expects to see which of the following signs documented in Vincent's record as the most likely indicator that led to this suspicion? A. Incessant crying B. Coughing at nighttime C. Choking with feedings D. Severe projectile vomiting 53. Nurse Ange is caring for Baby Isabel, who has a suspected diagnosis of imperforate anus. Nurse Ange closely monitors the