Tiêu đề RECALLS 6 - NP4 - SC ✅

1 | Page RECALLS 6 EXAMINATION NURSING PRACTICE IV CARE OF CLIENTS WITH PHYSIOLOGIC AND PSYCHOSOCIAL ALTERATIONS (PART B) NOVEMBER 2025 Philippine Nurse Licensure Examination Review GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS: 1. This test questionnaire contains 100 test questions 2. Shade only one (1) box for each question on your answer sheets. Two or more boxes shaded will invalid your answer. 3. AVOID ERASURES. 4. Detach one (1) answer sheet from the bottom of your Examinee ID/Answer Sheet Set. 5. Write the subject title “NURSING PRACTICE IV” on the box provided Situation: The charge nurse in the medical unit updates her knowledge on nursing diagnosis. She reviews the terms used to describe clinical adjustment. 1. A nursing diagnosis formulated when there is insufficient evidence to support the presence of the problem but the nurse believes the problem is highly probable and wants to collect more data is a/an _________: A. Risk nursing diagnosis B. Possible nursing diagnosis C. Actual nursing diagnosis D. Wellness nursing diagnosis 2. Which of the following statements is a POSSIBLE nursing diagnosis? A. Constipation related to decreased activity and fluid intake B. Potential for Enhanced Spiritual Well Being C. Possible Self Care Deficit – grooming related to fatigue and muscular weakness D. Risk for Activity Intolerance related to prolonged bed rest 3. Which of the following is a RISK nursing diagnosis? A. Potential for Enhanced Spiritual Well Being B. Possible Self-Care Deficit; grooming related to fatigue and muscular weakness C. Risk for activity intolerance related to prolonged bed rest D. Constipation related to decreased activity and fluid intake Situation: The nurse provides health education to a group of adolescents about pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). – severe inflammation of reproductive tract 4. The nurse explains that prevention of PID in adolescents is important due to which of the following reasons. PID ________: A. can have devastating effects on the reproductive tract of affected adolescents. B. is easily prevented by compliance to any form of contraception C. can cause life-threating defects in infants born to affected adolescents. – wala naman binanggit sa situation, wag mag overthing huwag gumawa ng story sa utak mo. Focus on what is being asked. D. Is easily prevented by proper personal hygiene – too vague 5. The nurse explains to the group of adolescents that the most common cause of PID is _______: A. Tuberculosis bacilli B. Gonorrhea C. Staphylococcus D. Streptococcus 6. The nurse further explains that PID presents the following signs and symptoms, which the adolescent should be aware of:10. A. A hard painless, red and defined lesion on the genital area. B. Small vesicles on the genital area with itching. C. lower abdominal pain and urinary tract infection D. Cervical discharge with redness and edema. 7. Which of the following statements is true when teaching adolescents about gonorrhea? A. Gonorrhea may be contracted through contact with a contaminated toilet seat. B. The infectious agent for gonorrhea is Neisseria gonorrhea C. Gonorrhea is most often treated by multidose of administration of penicillin. D. Treatment of sexual partners is the priority of treatment. 8. The nurse further explains to the adolescents that gonorrhea is highly infectious and it ____: A. Is limited to the external genitalia. B. Can lead to sterility C. Is easily treated. D. Occurs rarely among adolescents 9. Which of the following signs and symptoms should the nurse correlate with a diagnosis of osteoarthritis? A. Erythema and edema over the affected joints B. Joint stiffness that decreases with activity C. Anorexia and weight loss D. Fever and malaise 10. Which of the following factors would most likely increase the joints symptoms of osteoarthritis? A. Emotional stress B. Obesity C. History of Smoking D. Alcohol Abuse Situation: Ysha is an authistic child who loves to bang her head, one day while head banging she unintentionally hit the wall and briefly loses consciousness 11. Ysha is brought into the emergency department of LA Medical Center after suffering a head injury, The first action by the nurse is to determine the Ysha’s A. Level of consciousness B. Pulse and blood pressure C. Respiratory rate and depth D. Ability to move extremities 12. The Nurse anticipates detecting the occurrence of what common complication of head injury. A. Intracranial hemorrhage B. Diabetes insipidus C. Diabetes mellitus D. Basilar Skull Fracture 13. The nurse is aware that she should monitor Ysha’s A. Pulse rate B. Temperature C. Urine output * NLE * NCLEX * CGFNS * HAAD * PROMETRICS * DHA * MIDWIFERY * LET * RAD TECH * CRIMINOLOGY * DENTISTRY * PHARMACY *

3 | Page 29. Client Donna, a toddler is hospitalized for acetaminophen (Tylenol) overdose. The nurse prepares to administer which specific antidote for this medication overdose? A. Vitamin K B. Protamine sulphate C. Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst) D. Naloxone hydrochloride (Narcan) 30. Which of the following is the best indirect method of measuring blood pressure? A. Palpatory blood pressure B. Aneroid sphygmomanometer C. Pulse oximeter D. Intra-arterial catheter – INVASIVE 31. According to the standards of AHA (2017), hypertension stage 1 is described as: A. Systolic BP of 120-139mmHg, diastolic BP of 80- 89mmHg B. Systolic BP of 120-149mmHg, diastolic BP of 90- 99mmHg C. Systolic BP of 130 – 139 mmHgm diastolic BP of 80 – 89 mmHG D. Systolic Bp of 140-149, diastolic BP of 100- 110mmHg 32. A patient was ordered to have his EKG reading done. As the nurse you know that the EKG is performed to assess A. Heart chambers and heart valves B. Hypertrophy, infarction, axis deviation C. Dysrhythmias, mitral stenosis, electrical conduction D. Coronary vessels and artery disease 33. During a disaster which principle is integral in decision making and providing health care to those who are victims? A. Beneficence B. Non maleficence C. Utilitarianism D. Paternalism 34. A patient admitted to the hospital with myocardial infarction develops severe pulmonary edema. Which of the following symptoms should the nurse expect the patient to exhibit? A. Slow, deep respirations B. Stridor C. Bradycardia D. Air hunger 35. A child is seen in the emergency department for scarlet fever. Which of the following descriptions of scarlet fever is NOT correct? A. Scarlet fever is caused by infection with group A Streptococcus bacteria B. “Strawberry tongue” is a characteristic sign. C. Petechiae occur on the soft palate. D. The pharynx is red and swollen. Situation: You are a staff nurse in a psychiatric unit. You are taking care of Mr. Joe. who is suffering from heroin-addiction with suspected complications of HIV. 36. Macy asked you what HIV seropositivity means. Your answer will be: A. An infected person with HIV is capable of transmitting the virus to sexual partner B. An infected person can donate blood after five years. C. The person tested is not infectious. D. With appropriate medication, the infected person will be no longer infectious after two months. 37. In your morning rounds, you noticed in Mr. Joe the presence of cough, shortness of breath and tachypnea (respiratory sx). Which of the opportunistic infection is probably causing these manifestations? A. Toxoplasmgondii B. Cytomegalo virus C. Cryptococcus neoformans D. Pneumocystis jirovecii 38. Which of the following are the most possible cause of HIV in Mr. Joe’s case? A. Unprotected sex with his fiancée B. Exposure to infected body fluid. C. Unprotected anal intercourse. D. His heroin addiction 39. Another day, Mr. Joe. was visited by her girlfriend Macy, who admitted she had been having sex with him. In describing risky sexual practices, which of the following you will tell Macy is not a risk factor? A. Mucosal exposure such as splashing the eyes or mouth B. Anal intercourse is the primary way in spreading HIV C. HIV can be transmitted during sexual intercourse from an infected partner. D. Oral sex is considered risky. 40. Mr. Joe tested positive for HIV. Which of the following explanation can you give him? A. Antibodies to the AIDS virus are present in the blood B. “This means that you will not develop AIDS in the future.” C. “You have been diagnosed with AIDS.” D. “At this point, AIDS virus is not active in your blood.” Situation: A 60-year-old male is admitted to the oncology unit. According to the client, he felt a growth during a routine digital prostate examination. He complains of pain on urination and frequent urination. 41. The nurse understands that the function of the prostate gland is primarily to ______; A. Regulate the acidity and alkalinity environment for proper sperm development. B. Produce a secretion that aids the nourishment and passage of sperm C. Secrete a hormone that stimulates the production and maturation of sperm. D. Store undeveloped sperm before ejaculation. 42. The nurse analyzes the laboratory values and notes that the serum phosphate level is elevated. This finding indicates which of the following: A. It confirms the diagnosis of prostate cancer. B. The progression or regression of prostate cancer. C. The likelihood of metastasis to the bones. D. There are complications associated with cancer. 43. The nurse knows that hormone therapy is the mode of treatment for a client with prostate cancer. The goal of this form of treatment is to ______: A. Limit the amount of circulating androgens B. Increase prostaglandin level. C. Increase the amount of circulating androgens. D. Increase testosterone level. Situation: The nurse cares for a female client who is terminally ill and is experiencing pain. 44. The nurse prepares a care plan for the client. The overall goal for the client is ________. The client will: A. Achieve control of pain and discomfort. B. Receive adequate cerebral oxygenation and perfusion. C. Be free from infection. D. Receive life sustaining food and liquids. 45. The nurse is aware of the document that expresses a client’s wish for life sustaining treatment in the event of terminal illness or permanent unconsciousness. This document is the ______; A. No-code order B. Durable power of attorney C. Living will D. Last will and testament 46. The client nears death and requests that no medication be given that would cause a loss of consciousness, including pain medication. The nurse would promote the best end-of-life care for the client by which of the following? A. Discuss the request of the dying client with family members and respect their wishes. B. Comfort is the highest priority in this situation so give medications as ordered. C. Respect the client’s wishes and withhold pain medications and other medications ordered D. Be compassionate and give half of dose of the medication ordered. 47. Which of the following statement is TRUE about terminally ill clients? A. Terminally ill clients require minimum physical care.
4 | Page B. Health care personnel do not understand their own feelings about death and dying therefore they avoid caring for terminally clients. C. Terminally ill clients have the right to die with dignity D. Terminally ill client’s experiences pain most of the time. 48. The dying clients wishes to donate her eyes after she dies. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE about organ donation? A. Any individual, at least 15 years old of age and of a sound mind may donate a part of his body to take the effect after transplantation needed by the recipient B. Sharing of human organs or tissues shall be made only throygh an exchange program duly approved by the Department of Helath C. The choice to donate an organ must be a written document D. Laws that do not require the consent of a family members to retrieve organs if the donor has expressed his last wish to donayte SITUATION: A nurse working in the hema ward of Bloody hospital for 3 years is assigned to care for pediatric patients with hereditary condition. One of her patients is named Ryan, diagnosed with B-Thalassemia. 49. The nurse is presenting a clinical conference and discusses the cause of B- Thalassemia. The nurse informs her audience that the child at greatest risk of developing this disorder is: A. A child of Mexican descent B. A child of Mediterranean descent C. A child of Asian descent D. A child of American descent 50. The nurse added that in B-Thalassemia, which family history may be present in the development of the condition? A. Autosomal dominant disorder B. Autosomal recessive disorder C. Y-linked genetic disorder D. X-linked genetic disorder 51. The nurse presented assessment data she gathered from her patient. She emphasized that her patient has greenish- yellow skin tone and severe anemia requiring transfusion support to sustain life. She identifies this type of B- Thalassemia as: A. Thalassemia major B. Thalassemia intermedia C. Thalassemia trait D. Thalassemia minor 52. Based from the patient’s manifestations, severe anemia in B-Thalassemia is also known as: A. Kleihauer-Betke’s anemia B. Charcot’s anemia C. Coumb’s anemia D. Cooley’s anemia 53. The patient is receiving long-term blood transfusion therapy for the treatment of his disorder. Chelation therapy (removal of toxic substances) is prescribed to prevent organ damage from the presence of too much iron in the body as a result of the transfusions. The nurse correctly anticipates the medication used for chelation therapy for the patient which is: A. Naloxone B. Calcium Disodium Edetate C. Deferoxamine D. Protamine sulfate 54. The nurse is caring for another patient with a hereditary bleeding disorder. The nurse noted that the patient has increased tendency to bleed from mucous membranes. Most probably, the physician’s medical diagnosis for thi s patient would be: A. Christmas disease B. Classic hemophilia C. Von Willebrand disease D. B-Thalassemia Situation: Mrs. Tina, a 47-year-old married woman with four children, went to the hospital because of joint pain. Upon reviewing her medical history, the nurse discovers that she was diagnosed with osteoarthritis. 55. Nurse Madie was assigned to care for this patient. She is aware that osteoarthritis is not associated with the following signs and symptoms: a. Edema over the affected joints – RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS b. Stiffness is decreased with movement. c. Pain d. Limitations in range-of-motion 56. A comprehensive physical assessment and health history was taken by Nurse Madie. She was able to take note of various risk factors present from the patient's lifestyle. Nurse Madie knows that among the following, the factor that most likely aggravates Mrs. Lima's symptoms is: A. Recent leg fracture B. Working as a corporate president for 10 years C. Weight of 75kg and height of 165cm – OBESE 1 D. Dehydration 57. Nurse Sugar is assessing a client with Cushing’s syndrome. Which observation should the nurse report to the physician immediately? A. Pitting edema of the legs B. An irregular apical pulse C. Dry mucous membranes D. Frequent urination 58. Nurse Madie is aware that osteoarthritis is a "wear-and- tear" disease. She expects that the joints most likely affected in this condition are the: A. Hips and knees B. Tibia and fibula C. Humerus and radius D. Thoracic spine 59. As part of health teaching, Nurse Madie instructs Mrs. Tina that to effectively decrease joint pain and stiffness before starting her daily activities, she should not do the following excluding: A. Decrease carbohydrates and protein, and increase more fat in diet. B. Perform range of motion exercisaes and apply liniment to the affected joints C. Administer codeine when pain is exceedingly high. D. Apply cold compress to affected joints. 60. Being the patient's primary nurse, Nurse Madie collaborates with the healthcare team, especially with the physical therapist. The physical therapist recommended that Mrs. Lima undergo a regimen of rest, exercise and physical therapy. Nurse Madie explains to the patient that this regimen will: A. Help patient cure the disease B. To reduce the inflammation due to the disease process. C. To restore her abilities she had when she was younger D. Prevent the crippling effect of osteoarthritis Situation: EJ has been wearing eyeglasses since he was 5 years old. When he turned 18, he wanted to dispose of the eyeglasses and started wearing long-wearing contact lenses. Before his 24th birthday, he was rushed into the emergency department because of severe eye pain. After assessment, he was diagnosed to have corneal ulcer. 61. Which of the following affects the ability of the eye to clearly focus? A change in the_______. A. Stroma B. Sensory cells of the retina C. curvature of the cornea D. epithelium 62. Which of the following is the predisposing factor for EJ’s condition? A. Bacterial infection B. Prolonged misuse of contact lenses C. Malnutrition D. Viral infection 63. Corneal ulcers are considered medical emergencies. Which of the following nursing actions will be your PRIORITY? A. Remove the contact lens B. Prompt referral to the ophthalmologist for treatment C. Administer eyedrops D. Pressure dressing applied to both eyes for comfort