Title RECALLS 10 - NP3 - SC ✅

1 | Page RECALLS 10 EXAMINATION NURSING PRACTICE III CARE OF CLIENTS WITH PHYSIOLOGIC AND PSYCHOSOCIAL ALTERATIONS (PART A) NOV 2025 Philippine Nurse Licensure Examination Review GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS: 1. This test questionnaire contains 100 test questions 2. Shade only one (1) box for each question on your answer sheets. Two or more boxes shaded will invalid your answer. 3. AVOID ERASURES. 4. Detach one (1) answer sheet from the bottom of your Examinee ID/Answer Sheet Set. 5. Write the subject title “NURSING PRACTICE I” on the box provided 1. You as a nurse, upon assessment would start compressions. What should be the quality of your compressions to be effective? A. Push hard at least 6 cm and fast (100-120/minutes) B. Push hard at least 2 inches and fast (110-120/mins) C. Push hard at least 5 cm and fast (100-120/mins) D. Push hard at least 3 inches and fast (110-120/mins) 2. Which of the following rhythm is NOT shockable? 1. pulseless ventricular Tachycardia 2. Ventricular Fibrillation 3. Asystole 4. Pulseless Electrical Activity A. 1& 2 B. 2 & 4 C. 1, 3, & 4 D. 3 & 4 3. If you will be using a monophasic Defibrillator, how much energy should you give on first shock? A. 180 J B. 260 J C. 360 J D. 480 J 4. After the third cycle and the patient hasn’t return to spontaneous circulation, the patient should be given drug which is: A. Epinephrine 3 mg IV/IO B. Adenosine 300 mg bolus IV/IO C. Amiodarone 300 mg bolus IV/IO D. Adenosine 350 mg bolus IV/IO 5. The following are the Reversible causes of Cardiac Arrest EXCEPT: A. Hypothermia B. Pulmonary Thrombosis C. Toxins D. Metabolic alkalosis 6. Blood pressure (BP) is the force of blood exerted against the vessel walls. Which of the following is correct about BP? A. Blood pressure= Cardiac output x Peripheral vascular resistance B. Blood pressure= Preload x Afterload C. Blood pressure= Cardiac output + Peripheral vascular resistance D. Blood pressure= Stroke volume x Heart Rate   7.Blood pressure is regulated by balancing the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems. These receptors are stimulated when the aortic and arterial walls are stretched by an increased blood pressure.  * A. Stretch receptors B. Chemoreceptors C. Baroreceptors D. Juxtaglomerular apparatus   8.A client with a blood pressure of 130/90 mmHg has a mean arterial pressure (MAP) of:   A. 103 mmHg B. 80 mmHg C. 111 mmHg D. 74 mmHg   9.The client has a cardiac output of 5.5 L/min, heart rate of 75 bpm, and body surface area of 1.75 m2. What is the client’s cardiac index?   a. 4.65 L/min/m2 b. 3.14 L/min/m2 c. 4.25 L/min/m2 d. 2.67 L/min/m2   10. In which event of the cardiac cycle do the aortic and pulmonic valves close?   A. After isovolumetric contraction B. Atrial systole C. Ventricular ejection D. Before isovolumetric relaxation   11. In which event of the cardiac cycle do the mitral and tricuspid valves close?    A. After isovolumetric contraction B. Ventricular filling C. Before isovolumetric contraction D. Ventricular ejection   12. Which of the following refers to the law that the more the heart is filled during diastole (within limits), the more forcefully it contracts?    A. Gay-Lussac’s law B. Boyle’s law C. Charles’ law D. Starling’s law   13. All of the following factors affect the stroke volume, except:   A. Afterload B. Automaticity C. Preload D. Contractility   14. Which of the following is true regarding hydrostatic pressure?    * NLE * NCLEX * CGFNS * HAAD * PROMETRICS * DHA * MIDWIFERY * LET * RAD TECH * CRIMINOLOGY * DENTISTRY * PHARMACY *
2 | Page A. It is determined by the blood pressure. The higher the blood pressure, the higher the hydrostatic pressure. B. Low hydrostatic pressure could lead to development of peripheral edema. C. It is determined by albumin. The higher the albumin, the higher the hydrostatic pressure. D. High hydrostatic pressure could lead to development of hypervolemia and pulmonary congestion.   15. Cardiovascular risk increases with cigarette smoking. If a patient reported smoking 3 cigarette sticks per day for 5 years, and 8 cigarette sticks for 4 years, compute for the pack-years.    A. 3 years and 2 months B. 2 years and 4 months C. 1 year and 6 months D. 3 years and 1 month   16. Nurse Eva notes a request for electrocardiogram for a patient. The rhythm strip shows flat T waves and presence of U waves. Nurse Eva knows that this condition could lead to the toxicity of which among the following medications?    A. Lidocaine B. Dobutamine C. Digoxin D. Furosemide   17. Nurse Eva is aware that morphine is the priority medication administered to a client who suffers from myocardial infarction. The mechanism of action of morphine in this specific clinical event is:    A. Morphine is a superior analgesic for chest pain because it is an opioid. B. Morphine is a central nervous system depressant which increases blood pressure. C. Morphine is a potent vasoconstrictor, thereby increasing coronary blood flow. D. Morphine has a dilating effect on blood vessels that reduce cardiac demand.   18. An adult female client requests for an Electrocardiogram tracing. Which of the following ECG readings would suggest that the client is experiencing myocardial ischemia?   A. Pathologic Q wave B. T wave inversion C. ST segment elevation D. QRS widening   19. Nurse Eva received a patient with a history of myocardial infarction and cardiac tamponade. The following are the signs and symptoms of cardiac tamponade except:    A. Hypotension B. Distant heart sounds C. Bradycardia D. Jugular vein distension   20. Nurse Eva assess the ECG rhythm of a patient. She observed an atrial rate of 200 per minute, narrow QRS complex, and a sawtooth appearance. Which among the following is a correct ECG interpretation?    A. Atrial fibrillation B. Ventricular tachycardia C. AV block D. Atrial flutter   21. Nurse Eva is caring for a client with left-sided congestive heart failure. When developing a nursing care plan for this client, which among the following interventions should not be involved?    A. Health education regarding high-fiber and low-sodium diet. B. Provide small and frequent feedings. C. Offer a bed pan rather than a bed commode for elimination. D. Monitor for signs of pulmonary edema.   22. One of the patient’s ECG rhythm suddenly showed a flat or straight line. The following actions by the code team is correct except:    A. Start chest compressions. B. Deliver 200 Joules of shock. C. Monitor and document the time. D. Assess ECG rhythm every 120 seconds.   23. Nurse Eva is reading the ECG of a patient. She observes a dysrhythmia characterized by random, chaotic discharging of impulses within the ventricle at rate that exceed 300 beats per minute. She infers that the patient has which ECG rhythm?    A. Supraventricular tachycardia B. Atrial flutter C. AV block D. Ventricular fibrillation   24. During the cardiac arrest event, the health care team must also attempt to assess for the possible reversible causes that could be addressed. The following are the reversible causes of cardiac arrest except:    A. Very low body temperature B. An accumulation of hydrogen ions in the blood C. SaO2 of 80% D. Severe fluid volume congestion   25. A client with a medical diagnosis of atherosclerosis of the popliteal artery manifests with intermittent claudication, low grade pulse, and ulcers at the toes. Based on the presenting signs and symptoms, which among the following is the priority nursing diagnosis for the client?  * A. Ineffective peripheral tissue perfusion related to reduced vascular lumen. B. Impaired skin integrity related to decreased venous circulation. C. Fluid volume deficit related to fluid shifting into interstitial space. D. Chronic pain related to insufficient tissue oxygenation. Situation – Nurse Carlo is caring for mechanically ventilated patients in the medical ward of Hospital A. The following questions apply:   26. Nurse Carlo knows that for a patient to be a candidate for mechanical ventilation, at least one of the following must be assessed or observed, except:   A. PaO2 < 50 mmHg, FiO2 > 0.60 B. Respiratory rate > 35/min C. PaO2 < 50 mmHg, pH < 7.25 D. Vital capacity < 2 times tidal volume   27. A patient’s mechanical ventilator is being maintained with low positive-end expiratory pressure (PEEP). Nurse Carlo understands that this is a measure to prevent which of the following complications?   A. Hypotension B. Tracheal necrosis C. Pneumothorax D. Atelectasis   28. The following are modes of ventilation that can be applied to patients. Which of the following is used when spontaneous respiratory effort of patient is “locked out”?    A. Assist/Controlled Ventilation (A/C) B. Synchronized Intermittent Mandatory Ventilation (SIMV) C. Continuous Positive Airway Pressure (CPAP) D. Controlled Ventilation   29. Suddenly, a mechanical ventilator of a patient had triggered a high-pressure alarm. The following are possible reasons except:   
3 | Page A. Kinked tubing B. Pneumothorax C. Increased lung compliance D. Plug   30. To prevent ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP), the following practices are considered acceptable and evidence- based except:    A. Oral care with chlorhexidine B. DVT prophylaxis with anti-embolic stockings C. PUD prophylaxis with enoxaparin D. Head of bed elevation   31. Nurse May interprets the rhythm strip of a patient who underwent electrocardiogram. Which of the following waves represent ventricular depolarization?   A. P wave B. QRS complex C. T wave D. ST segment   32. Nurse May reads the ECG rhythm of a patient as having torsades de pointes. Which of the following medications must she expect to be ordered immediately?    A. Magnesium B. Atropine C. Sodium bicarbonate D. Vasopressin   33. Which of the following ECG rhythms warrant immediate defibrillation?    A. Ventricular tachycardia B. Ventricular fibrillation C. Asystole D. Atrial fibrillation   34. AV blocks occur when the conduction of the impulse through the AV node is decreased. The following statements are true about AV blocks except?    A. First-degree AV block occurs when the atrial impulses are conducted at a slower rate. B. In second-degree block Type I, conduction shows increasing intervals until full blockage. C. In second-degree block Type II, PR interval is constant. D. Third-degree block occurs when no ventricular pulse is conducted. 35. Nurse May is operating a pacemaker with a NASPE-BPEG code. Which of the following is meant by the letter “D”?* A. Both the atrium and the ventricle have a pacing electrode in place. B. The pacemaker is sensing the activity of the ventricle only. C. The pacemaker is sensing the activity of the atrium only. D. The pacemaker’s stimulating effect is inhibited by ventricular activity. Situation – You are a newly employed nurse in the Central ICU. As part of your orientation, you should be familiarized with the emergency drugs needed in the ICU. The following questions apply. 36. As you scan through the emergency cart, you saw Dopamine. Recalling your undergraduate years, you remembered dopamine can serve as two functions: renal vasodilator and a vasopressor. Which dose would have an effect of renal vasodilation to patients?* A. 1-10 mcg/kg/min B. 2-20 mcg/kg/min C. 1-5 mcg/kg/min D. >20 mcg/kg/min 37. Your co-worker asked you some favor to re-compute for her the rate needed for her patient. In this way, she can verify that her computations were correct. The following details were given to you: Preparation: 200mg/5ml Total Volume:100ml Weight: 15 kg Dose: 2mcg/kg/min A. 4.5 ml/hr B. 5.5 ml/hr C. 6 ml/hr D. 7 ml/hr 38. Another nurse was testing your computation skills. She asked you to compute the dose of Dobutamine with the following details: Preparation: 250mg/20mL Total Volume: 100mL Weight: 15kg Rate: 1.8mL/hr A. 0.75 mcg/kg/min B. 0. 16 mcg/kg/min C. 0.25 mcg/kg/min D. 0.5 mcg/kg/min 39. Heparin is given to patient. The doctors order is to give 10,000 units/cc to be diluted to 115 ml diluent at a rate of 18 cc/hr. Compute for the dose to be given. A. 156 units/ml/hr B. 1565 units/ml/hr C. 1456 units/ml/hr D. 68888 units/ml/hr 40. Heparin concentration from the previous patient stated above is also needed. You as a nurse you compute an arrive at the correct answer which is? A. 1150 units B. 1180 units C. 158 units D. 87 units Situation – You are a nurse who works in the critical care unit setting and are required to cater to all sort of patients. 41. One of your patients has a pacemaker system implanted. This uses a bipolar epicardial lead system. What is true about this device? A. Contains positive and negative electrodes B. Contains only a negative electrode C. Implanted within the skin of the patient D. This has a wide sensing area 42. You notice that another patient is experiencing symptomatic bradycardia. You initiate giving atropine but the ECG reading still does not normalize. What can you do to attain an acceptable ECG reading from the patient? A. Recommend application of cardiac pacing to the physician B. Initiate transcutaneous cardiac pacing C. Prepare a defibrillator D. Call the physician immediately 43. Your patient is on temporary pacing. His pacing mode is described as synchronous with atrial and ventricular pacing, and ventricular sensing. Atrial and ventricular pacing are inhibited if there is spontaneous ventricular depolarization. What pacing mode is this? A. A00 B. D00 C. DVI