Title RECALLS 4 - NP4 - SC ✅

Structure and Function of the Articular System 16. A patient complains of pain and limited movement in their right knee. Which joint structure is involved in cushioning the movement of tendons and bones in this joint? A. Ligament B. Tendon C. Bursa D. Bone 17. A patient experiences a tearing sensation in their ankle during a sports injury. Which structure is most likely injured? A. Bursa B. Tendon C. Synovium D. Ligament 18. Which type of joint allows for movement in two planes at right angles to each other, as seen in the thumb? A. Ball-and-socket joint B. Hinge joint C. Saddle joint D. Pivot joint 19. What type of joint allows for rotation, such as turning a doorknob? A. Gliding joint B. Hinge joint C. Pivot joint D. Saddle joint 20. What is the primary function of synovial fluid in a typical movable joint? A. To bind articulating bones together B. To connect muscle to bone C. To lubricate and absorb shock D. To provide anterior and posterior stability Situation: A 55-year-old patient newly diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes is being educated on self-administering insulin. The patient expresses anxiety about the process and asks many questions. 21. Which of the following is the priority initial instruction regarding insulin storage? A. Always keep insulin frozen to maintain potency. B. Store all insulin vials at room temperature to prevent injection site irritation. C. Refrigerate unopened insulin vials and keep the vial in use at room temperature. D. Insulin can be stored at any temperature; refrigeration is unnecessary. 22. The patient needs to mix regular and NPH insulin. What is the correct order for drawing up the insulin into the syringe? A. Draw up the NPH insulin first, then the regular insulin. B. Draw up the regular insulin first, then the NPH insulin. C. The order doesn't matter as long as both insulins are mixed thoroughly. D. It's best to use premixed insulin to avoid mixing errors. 23. The patient is concerned about injection site reactions. What is the best strategy to prevent lipodystrophy? A. Inject insulin into the same site every time. B. Randomly rotate injection sites throughout the body. C. Systematically rotate injection sites within a single anatomical area. D. Only use the abdomen for injections. 24. The patient asks about aspiration (pulling back on the plunger before injecting). What is the nurse's best response? A. Aspiration is always necessary to ensure the insulin is injected subcutaneously. B. Aspiration is no longer considered necessary for insulin injections. C. Aspiration is only necessary for patients with a history of injection site complications. D. Aspiration is recommended to prevent intramuscular injection. 25. The patient demonstrates the insulin injection technique. Which observation indicates a need for further teaching? A. The patient cleanses the injection site with alcohol and allows it to air dry. B. The patient pinches the skin before inserting the needle at a 90-degree angle. C. The patient injects the insulin quickly and removes the needle immediately. D. The patient rotates injection sites systematically within the abdomen. Situation: A 28-year-old patient with a history of type 1 diabetes presents to the emergency department with symptoms of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). The patient reports several days of nausea, vomiting, and increased thirst and urination. 26. Which of the following is not a primary clinical feature of DKA? A. Hyperglycemia B. Dehydration and electrolyte loss C. Hypoglycemia D. Acidosis 27. What is the underlying physiological process that leads to dehydration in DKA? A. Decreased gluconeogenesis B. Increased insulin production C. Osmotic diuresis D. Reduced lipolysis 28. Which of the following nursing interventions is priority in the initial management of this patient's DKA? A. Administering regular insulin intravenously. B. Initiating continuous cardiac monitoring. C. Providing meticulous skin care to prevent breakdown. D. Restricting fluids to prevent fluid overload. 29. The patient's initial blood glucose level is 450 mg/dL. What IV fluid is appropriate for initial rehydration? A. D5W (5% dextrose in water) B. 0.45% saline C. 0.9% saline (normal saline) D. Lactated Ringer's solution 30. During DKA treatment, which electrolyte requires particularly close monitoring due to its potential for both hypokalemia and hyperkalemia? A. Sodium B. Chloride C. Magnesium D. Potassium Situation: A 68-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes is admitted to the hospital with altered mental status, severe dehydration, and a blood glucose level of 800 mg/dL. 31. What condition is suggested by the patient’s signs and symptoms? A. Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA) B. Hyperglycemic Hyperosmolar Syndrome (HHS) C. Hypoglycemic coma D. Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state 32. Which of the following electrolyte imbalances is most likely to be present in this patient? A. Hypokalemia B. Hyponatremia C. Hypocalcemia D. Hypernatremia 33. What is the primary physiological mechanism causing the altered mental status in this patient? A. Ketoacidosis B. Cerebral edema C. Cerebral dehydration D. Hypoxia 34. Which nursing assessment should be monitored frequently in a patient with HHS? A. Deep tendon reflexes B. Breath sounds for crackles C. Level of consciousness D. Presence of ketones in urine 35. Compared to DKA management, what is a key difference in the treatment of HHS? A. Insulin is not a primary treatment modality B. Fluid resuscitation is not as critical C. Electrolyte replacement is unnecessary 2 | Page

D. Manual reduction Stages in the Development of Pressure Injuries 56. What is the defining characteristic of a Stage 1 pressure injury? A. Partial-thickness skin loss B. Full-thickness skin loss C. Non-blanchable erythema of intact skin D. Exposed bone or muscle 57. Which stage involves partial-thickness skin loss with exposed dermis? A. Stage 1 B. Stage 2 C. Stage 3 D. Stage 4 58. In which stage does adipose tissue become visible? A. Stage 1 B. Stage 2 C. Stage 3 D. Stage 4 59. Which stage involves exposed fascia, muscle, tendon, or bone? A. Stage 1 B. Stage 2 C. Stage 3 D. Stage 4 60. What term describes a pressure injury where the stage cannot be determined due to slough or eschar? A. Deep tissue injury B. Unstageable pressure injury C. Suspected deep tissue injury D. Partial-thickness skin loss Management of Patients with Dermatologic Disorders 61. A 6-year-old child presents with multiple, itchy, honey-yellow crusts on the face and hands, which started as small blisters. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Cellulitis B. Bullous impetigo C. Nonbullous impetigo D. Ecthyma 62. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment for this child? A. Oral corticosteroids B. Topical mupirocin ointment C. Systemic antibiotics D. Oral antiviral medication 63. Which of the following is a serious complication of streptococcal impetigo? A. Cellulitis B. Acute glomerulonephritis C. Permanent scarring D. Ecthyma 64. A nurse is providing education to a family about impetigo prevention. Which of the following strategies is essential to prevent its spread? A. Restricting fluid intake B. Avoiding contact with infected individuals C. Administering prophylactic antibiotics D. Encouraging high-protein diets 65. What is the typical prognosis for most children with impetigo? A. Complete recovery within 24 hours B. Full recovery without scarring C. High risk of chronic kidney disease D. Recurrence in 50% of cases 66. What condition is suggested by intense itching, particularly at night, and a rash with thin, wavy lines on their wrists and between their fingers? A. Cellulitis B. Bullous impetigo C. Scabies D. Ecthyma 67. What is a classic sign of scabies that may also indicate a secondary infection? A. Red, pruritic eruptions B. Tinnitus C. Hearing difficulties D. Isolation 68. What is the first-line treatment for scabies? A. Oral ivermectin B. Topical permethrin C. Topical lindane D. Oral clindamycin 69. Following treatment with permethrin cream, when should the family expect to see improvement in their symptoms? A. Within 24 hours B. Within 2-3 days C. Within 1-2 weeks D. Within 4-6 weeks 70. A nurse is educating a patient about scabies prevention. Which of the following is the most effective strategy? A. Avoiding contact with infected individuals B. Restricting fluid intake C. Administering prophylactic antibiotics D. Encouraging high-protein diets Hearing Loss 71. Which of the following age groups has the highest rate of adults experiencing disabling hearing loss? A. 45 to 54 years B. 55 to 64 years C. 65 to 74 years D. Over 75 years 72. What is the primary nursing intervention when communicating with this patient? A. Speak loudly and slowly. B. Speak directly into the patient's ear. C. Face the patient and speak clearly at a normal pace. D. Write down all important information. 73. Which type of hearing loss is characterized by a dysfunction in sound transmission due to an external or middle ear disorder? A. Sensorineural hearing loss B. Conductive hearing loss C. Mixed hearing loss D. Functional hearing loss 74. Which type of hearing loss is characterized by a dysfunction in sound transmission due to an internal ear disorder? A. Sensorineural hearing loss B. Conductive hearing loss C. Mixed hearing loss D. Functional hearing loss 75. What is the recommended action for individuals experiencing hearing loss? A. Wait for symptoms to improve B. Seek medical attention or wear a hearing aid C. Avoid communication with others D. Increase volume on all devices Conditions of the Middle Ear 76. A patient presents with acute ear pain, fever, and a bulging, opaque tympanic membrane. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Otitis Externa B. Otitis Media with Effusion C. Acute Otitis Media D. Chronic Suppurative Otitis Media 77. What is the first-line treatment for Acute Otitis Media in children under two years old? A. Watchful Waiting B. High-dose Amoxicillin C. Topical Analgesics D. Myringotomy 78. Which of the following is not a risk factor for Acute Otitis Media? A. Younger Age B. Chronic Upper Respiratory Infections C. Breastfeeding D. Chronic Exposure to Secondhand Cigarette Smoke 79. What is a serious complication of Acute Otitis Media? A. Temporary Hearing Loss B. Tympanic Membrane Perforation 4 | Page