Title RECALLS 7 - NP4 - SC ✅

B. Demonstrating mood improvement in one week C. Verbalizing no plan for self-harm D. Participating in recreational activities 58. Which medication is most likely prescribed for acute alcohol withdrawal? A. Disulfiram B. Lorazepam C. Haloperidol D. Lithium 59. A nurse notes a client smiling while reporting sadness and hopelessness. This is known as: A. Flat affect B. Incongruent affect C. Restricted affect D. Blunted affect 60. A nurse teaching a group about stress explains that the fight-or-flight response initially causes: A. Bradycardia and pupil constriction B. Increased HR, BP, and dilated pupils C. Increased digestion and urine output D. Decreased blood glucose and muscle tension Situation: You are caring for clients with schizophrenia and psychotic disorders. Your role includes recognizing priority symptoms, preventing harm, and reinforcing medication adherence. 61. Which is the best response to a client experiencing auditory hallucinations? A. “I hear the voices too.” B. “That’s not real, ignore them.” C. “I know the voices seem real to you; what are they saying?” D. “You need to focus on reality now.” 62. Which assessment finding indicates benzodiazepine toxicity? A. Hyperreflexia and hypertension B. Respiratory depression and confusion C. Tinnitus and blurry vision D. Abdominal cramps and diarrhea 63. A client with dementia suddenly becomes more confused at night. This is called: A. Echolalia B. Perseveration C. Sundowning D. Confabulation 64. A nurse is reinforcing teaching about buspirone. Which statement indicates understanding? A. “I can take it as needed for anxiety attacks.” B. “It will start working in 1–2 days.” C. “I might feel dizzy but it’s not addictive.” D. “I need to avoid grapefruit juice.” 65. Which finding indicates serotonin syndrome? A. Hypothermia and depression B. Muscle rigidity, high fever, and confusion C. Bradycardia and excessive sleepiness D. Enlarged pupils and orthostatic hypotension Situation: You are addressing cognitive disorders and side effects of psychotropic medications, focusing on early complication detection and therapeutic approaches. 66. A nurse notices a client with dementia fabricating stories. This is known as: A. Perseveration B. Confabulation C. Flight of ideas D. Circumstantiality 67. Which therapeutic approach is best for a paranoid client refusing food? A. Offer food in sealed containers B. Force-feed for nutrition\ C. Ignore food concerns and focus on medication D. Restrict interaction until trust is gained 68. A nurse suspects neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS). Which symptom supports this? A. Sudden severe hypertension and headache B. High fever, muscle rigidity, altered consciousness C. Pinpoint pupils and respiratory depression D. Flushed skin and diarrhea 69. Which intervention is most appropriate for a client with moderate anxiety? A. Use a calm voice and explore feelings B. Avoid discussion until anxiety subsides C. Provide written instructions only D. Confront all irrational thoughts immediately 70. Which sign is associated with alcohol withdrawal rather than intoxication? A. Slurred speech and unsteady gait B. Bradycardia and hypotension C. Tremors and hypertension D. Pinpoint pupils and drowsiness Situation: You are assigned to clients with mood disorders, substance abuse issues, and risk for harm to self or others. Early identification and safety measures are essential. 71. A client in lithium therapy develops diarrhea, tremors, and confusion. What is the priority action? A. Document and continue monitoring B. Give an anti-diarrheal and fluids C. Hold the lithium and notify the provider D. Encourage a salty snack 72. Which behavior is expected in borderline personality disorder? A. Rigid perfectionism B. Intense, unstable relationships and fear of abandonment C. Lack of remorse for wrongdoing D. Detachment and restricted emotions 73. Which client statement reflects improved coping after depression treatment? A. “I still don’t feel like doing anything.” B. “I called a friend to go for a walk.” C. “Nothing will ever change for me.” D. “I can’t make any decisions.” 74. Which lab must be monitored for clients on valproic acid? A. Liver function tests B. Renal function C. Electrolytes D. Thyroid function tests 75. A client taking clozapine develops fever and sore throat. What is the priority action? A. Administer acetaminophen and fluids B. Hold the medication and get a CBC C. Reassure and continue treatment D. Schedule an outpatient follow-up Situation: You are working in an ICU responding to multiple cardiac arrests. Your role includes medication preparation, safe administration, and understanding their effects during code situations. 76. During a cardiac arrest, the first-line medication for asystole is: A. Epinephrine B. Amiodarone C. Atropine D. Dopamine 77. Which statement best explains the action of epinephrine during cardiac arrest? A. Increases vagal tone and decreases HR B. Enhances myocardial contractility and peripheral vasoconstriction C. Slows conduction through the AV node D. Decreases myocardial oxygen demand 78. The recommended route for epinephrine during code if IV/IO access is unavailable is: A. Oral B. Endotracheal (ET) tube C. Intramuscular deltoid D. Subcutaneous 79. What is the primary indication for atropine during a code? A. Ventricular fibrillation B. Pulseless electrical activity C. Symptomatic bradycardia D. Supraventricular tachycardia 80. Amiodarone is used during ACLS primarily for: A. Refractory VF/pulseless VT 4 | Page