Title ĐỀ THI HSG ANH 11 THPT NÔNG CỐNG 1 - THANH HOÁ 2020-2021.pdf ✅

1 SỞ GD&ĐT THANH HOÁ TRƯỜNG THPT NÔNG CỐNG I *** ĐỀ THI KHẢO SÁT ĐỘI TUYỂN HSG LỚP 11 LẦN 1 NĂM HỌC 2020 – 2021. Môn thi: Tiếng Anh Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) Ngày thi 28 tháng 03 năm 2021 SECTION A: LISTENING (15 POINTS) HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU • Bài nghe gồm 3 phần, mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần, mỗi lần cách nhau khoảng 15 giây, mở đầu và kết thúc mỗi phần nghe có tín hiệu. • Mở đầu và kết thúc bài nghe có tín hiệu nhạc. Thí sinh có 3 phút để hoàn chỉnh bài trước tín hiệu nhạc kết thúc bài nghe. • Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe. I. You will hear a man talking about a children’s competition. Listen and complete the numbered gaps that follow. You can listen to the audio twice. Competition Organizer: The Countryside Club Write about: Your favorite British (1) ___________ Open to children aged: 8- (2) ___________ Number of words: (3) ___________ Prize: Family ticket to (4) ___________ Send entries to: (5) ___________, Portland II. Listen again and decide whether the following statements are True ( T) or False (F). 6. Last year, the children at the Countryside Club were asked to write about their favourite animal from the British countryside. 7. This year, the writing topic is the same as it used. 8. This year, the children between the ages of eight and fifty have the right to take part in the writing competition. 9. The best writing will appear in the Countryside magazine. 10. The winner will be awarded 200-400 pounds. III. Listen to Jack asking Alice about her birthday. For each question, choose the correct answer. 11. What date is Alice’s birthday?
2 A. 12th July B. 14th July C. 16th July 12. What was the problem at Alice’s party last year? A. Nobody had fun. B. It was hard work. C. Hardly any people came. 13. What is the problem with Freddie’s Pizza House? A. The service was terrible. B. The food is bad. C. The pizzas are expensive. 14 . Where is the burger restaurant? A. Hill Street. B. Penny Road C. Arthur Street 15. How much will six burgers cost at the new restaurant? A. £18 B. £36 C. £40 SECTION B: PHONETICS (5 POINTS) I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others. 16. A. production B. propaganda C. promotion D. proceed 17. A. express B. exciting C. expensive D. exhibition 18. A. stopped B. designed C. embroidered D. used II. Pick out the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the other words. Identify your answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet. 19. A. sufficient B. vitamin C. quantity D. medical 20. A. necessary B. comparative C. curriculum D. facilities SECTION C. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (30 POINTS) I. Choose the correct answer that best fits each blank. 21. Please put ___________ your cigarette. I’m allergic to smoke. A. out B. down C. up D. aside 22. The BBC has ___________ a young composer music for the Corporation's centenary. A. ordered B. consulted C. commissioned D. decided 23. A popular newspaper with a ___________ of over five million daily makes a lot of money. A. column B. message C. circulation D. review 24. Harry is a sailor. He spends most of his life at ___________ sea. A. a B. an C. the D. No article 25. I never get a ___________ of sleep after watching a horror film. A. wink B. blink C. night D. ounce 26. As it was Christmas, the ___________ at church was much larger than usual.
3 A. audience B. convention C. congregation D. grouping 27. ___________, I was pleased it was over. A. Though strange it was B. Despite it may sound strange C. Strange though it may sound D. Even though being very strange 28. It is gravity ___________ objects towards the earth. A. pulling B. to pull C. what pulls D. that pulls 29. - "Do you mind if I use your phone?" - "___________." A. Yes, certainly B. Sorry. I have no idea C. Not at all. Help yourself D. You can say that again 30. Their office consisted of three rooms, ___________ was used as a conference room. A. the largest of which B. larger of which C. the largest of them D. largest II. Put each verb in brackets into an appropriate form. 31. The US postal service policy for check approval includes a requirement that two pieces of identification (present) ___________. 32. I was a bit depressed, but watching my kitten play with a ball of wool soon had me (feel) ___________ better. 33. In her report, she mentioned (treat) ___________ at a hospital abroad last year. 34. The police are stopping all the cars. They (look) ___________ for the escaped prisoner. 35. The accident is said (happen) ___________ early in the morning. 36. My sister (work) ___________ at the company for three years when the redundancies were announced. 37. The little boy had a lot of trouble (convince) ___________ anyone he had seen a mermaid. III. Supply the correct form of the capitalized word at the end of each sentence. 38. The (predict) ___________ weather in the mountains can make climbing extremely hazardous. 39. Julie Johnson and Mark Thomas, aged 19 and 20 (respect) ___________, are taking part in the competition. 40. There are some (similar) ___________ and differences between the New Year in Japan and that in Vietnam. 41. The villages in the mountains are quite (access) ___________ during winter. 42. In critical situations, they often lose because they play so (profession) ___________. 43. Although we were in danger, Ann seemed quite (concern) ___________. 44. Some parents feel dismayed because of their children’s (behave) ___________.
4 45. My sister has good (person) ___________ skills. She can relate to teenagers very well. IV. In each of the following sentences, there is one mistake. Pick it out and correct it. 46. For such an experience and able teacher, discipline was not a problem. 47. They didn’t seem to take any notice of that the teacher said. 48. Tom is very good at science when his brother is absolutely hopeless. 49. I watched the train to leave until it was out of sight. 50. Maria asked Sandra whether she knew the post office had been at strike for the past week. SECTION D: READING COMPREHENSION (30 POINTS) I. Fill in each blank with ONE appropriate word. HOME-ALONE FATHERS The number of (51) ___________ fathers has increased considerably in recent years in Britain. We spoke to one such dad, Steve Baker, about how he copes with it all. Steve, 43 years old, has brought up his two teenage sons since he and his wife (52) ___________ up two years ago. “It’s (53) ___________ more difficult for a man than it is for a woman,” says Steve. “It’s a full-time job, whoever you are. Fortunately, my employers were very (54) ___________ in the first new months and they let me take time off work to get myself organized. As far as the housework is (55) ___________, I don’t mind cooking, as I’ve always been good at that; it’s the ironing I can’t (56) ___________! Generally (57) ___________, the boys and I get on very well together but of course, sometimes we have rows. That’s when I really miss having someone there with me to help me (58) ___________. I have had a couple of relationships in the last two years but they haven’t (59) ___________ out. That has a lot to do with the fact that I put my kids before anyone else, I take fatherhood very (60) ___________.” II. Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D to fill in the gaps in the following passage. A POWERFUL INFLUENCE There can be no doubt at all that the Internet has made a huge difference to our lives. However, most parents worry that children spend too much time browsing the Internet or playing computer games, hardly (61) ___________ doing anything else in their spare time. Naturally, parents want to know if these activities are harmful to their children. What should they do if their children spends hours (62) ___________ a computer screen? Obviously, if children spend too much time (63) ___________ in some games instead of doing their homework, then something is wrong. It is a good idea if parents and children decide together how much use