Title RECALLS 5 (NP2) - STUDENT COPY ✅

RECALLS EXAMINATION 5 NURSING PRACTICE II CARE OF HEALTHY / AT RISK MOTHER AND CHILD MAY 2025 Philippine Nurse Licensure Examination Review GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS: 1. This test questionnaire contains 100 test questions 2. Shade only one (1) box for each question on your answer sheets. Two or more boxes shaded will invalid your answer. 3. AVOID ERASURES. 4. Detach one (1) answer sheet from the bottom of your Examinee ID/Answer Sheet Set. 5. Write the subject title “NURSING PRACTICE II” on the box provided Situation: Developmental milestones are a fundamental aspect of pediatric nursing, serving as a key indicator of a child's growth and development. As a registered nurse working in the pediatric ward, it is essential to have a comprehensive understanding of the milestones specific to each age group to assess, monitor, and support the child's developmental progress effectively. 1. The most rapid period of growth occurs in which age group? A. Adult B. Toddler C. Adolescent D. Middle-aged male 2. Nurse Haru is taking care of Hannah, a 2-day-old infant who was recently admitted to the ICU after her abdominal surgery. What nursing intervention would meet the developmental needs of this patient? A. Giving her a pacifier B. Putting a black-and-white fabric over Hannah’s crib C. Providing a teddy bear to soothe her D. Warming Hannah’s formula before feeding her 3. Nurse Haru is teaching Chacha’s parent how to prevent accidents while caring for their 6-month-old infant. What ability should be emphasized about the infant’s motor development? A. Sits up B. Rolls over C. Crawls short distances D. Stands while holding on to furniture 4. The parents of Liam, a 2-year-old child tell the nurse that they are having difficulty disciplining their child. What is the nurse’s most appropriate response? A. “Your child is at a difficult age; we cannot do anything about it.” B. “Tell me more about your difficulty.” C. “It’s important to be consistent with your efforts.” D. “I know, right? That’s why this age is called terrible twos.” 5. The mother observes that Martin, a 6-month-old infant, is startled by a loud noise but does not turn in the direction of the sound. How should the nurse interpret the mother’s report? A. “Your child may have vision deficits.” B. “Your child may have hearing loss.” C. “Your child may have a low-normal hearing age.” D. “Your child is developmentally appropriate.” Situation: The nurse is conducting health teaching for a group of adolescent females in a community setting about the menstrual cycle. 6. Which of the following hormones are secreted by the pituitary gland in response to the stimulation of GnRH? I. Luteinizing Hormone II. Estrogen III. Progesterone IV. Follicle-stimulating Hormone V. Oxytocin A. I, IV B. I, V C. II, IV D. I, III 7. Hanni, a 16-year old student, asked Nurse Nini what is the purpose of corpus luteum. What is the correct response by Nurse Nini? A. “The corpus luteum ruptures and releases an ovum into the peritoneal cavity.” B. “The corpus luteum is responsible for secreting estrogen and progesterone.” C. “The secretion of FSH by the corpus luteum stimulates growth of follicles.” D. “The corpus luteum is responsible for secreting luteinizing hormone.” 8. Ideally, implantation of a fertilized egg should occur during which phase of the menstrual cycle? A. Proliferative Phase B. Menstrual Phase C. Secretory Phase D. Ovulation Phase 9. Which phase occurs when the endometrium breaks down because of the decreased levels of estrogen and progesterone? A. Proliferative Phase B. Menstrual Phase C. Secretory Phase D. Ovulation Phase 10. During this phase, the estrogen level is high and the progesterone level is low. A. Proliferative Phase B. Menstrual Phase C. Secretory Phase D. Ovulation Phase Situation: Nurses must possess a thorough understanding of the legal implications and cultural appropriateness of care when providing services to individual patients. 11. Audrey started working abroad as soon as she gave birth to her daughter. She is concerned as to how consent should be given for procedures for her child. What is the best response to reassure Audrey? A. “You can be contacted via telephone or e-mail for the consent.” B. “Informed consent is only needed for procedures that will cause severe pain.” C. “The hospital can omit the informed consent if the parent is not present with the child.” D. “Informed consent is not needed at all.” 12. Nurse Liam has observed that Nurse Zayn administered the wrong dose of medication to a pediatric patient. However, he decided to not report the incident because Nurse Zayn is his friend. What could he be charged with if something happens with the patient and the parents decide to sue? 1 | Page Prepared by: ENCARNACION, JESIKAH DE JESUS, JERICHO
A. Breach of contract B. Negligence C. Malpractice D. Breach of trust 13. Nurse Liam previously observed the father changing the infant’s diaper poorly. Based on this isolated experience, he would joke with other parents and colleagues, saying, “Men never diaper babies well.” This can be considered ___________. A. Prejudice B. Stereotyping C. Discrimination D. Malpractice 14. While admitted at the pediatric ward, Tiffany, 11 years old, makes the following statements. Which statement most clearly suggests she received culturally competent care? A. “My doctor is funny; he tells jokes and makes me laugh all the time.” B. “The nurses keep asking me who makes decision in my family.” C. “I’m sure I will heal quickly; the nurse said Filipinos are physically strong.” D. “The nurse asked me what I like to eat and then brought me adobo.” 15. Jessica is a 12-year-old student. What advice should the nurse provide to a UAP about communicating effectively with her? A. “Speak in a clear and natural tone.” B. “Jessica is Korean, ask her which Korean drama is her favorite.” C. “Jessica’s first language is Korean, so avoid talking about complex topics.” D. “If possible, try to speak to Jessica in an accent that’s similar to hers.” Situation: Nurse Jennifer is caring for Rachel, an infant with cleft problems. 16. Jane, Rachel’s mother, asked Nurse Jennifer which dietary supplements she should take to reduce the risk of cleft palate or cleft lip in her next child. Nurse Jennifer would be correct if she suggested _______. A. Protein B. Folic Acid C. Iron D. Vitamin B 17. Jane asked Nurse Jennifer when Rachel should undergo a cleft palate repair. The most appropriate response by Nurse Jennifer would be. A. “She’s still a baby, the cleft palate could repair on its own.” B. “Her cleft palate should be repaired as early as possible.” C. “She’s beautiful. She does not need any corrective surgery.” D. “I will ask the doctor to prepare an operating room now.” 18. Nurse Jennifer is teaching Jane feeding techniques for Rachel. Which of the following is an appropriate way to feed an infant with cleft problems? A. Place Rachel on her back during feedings. B. Hold Rachel in an upright position. C. Use a small-tipped nipple to feed Rachel. D. Place the formula at the front of Rachel’s mouth. 19. After the cleft lip repair, Rachel should be placed in what position? A. Supine B. Prone C. On the side of the repair D. On her back with elbow restraints 20. Nurse Jennifer should teach Rachel’s mother how to keep the surgical site clean and dry after feedings. What is the appropriate technique to maintain the cleanliness of the site? A. Cleanse the suture line with normal saline. B. Cleanse the suture line with povidone iodine. C. Cleanse the suture line with tap water. D. Cleanse the suture line with formula. Situation: You are caring for Rei, a 1-year-old patient, admitted to the pediatric ward. The parents expressed concern because their child has been experiencing persistent constipation with alternating diarrhea and abdominal distention. 21. You are assessing Rei, a 1-year-old patient brought to the clinic by her parents. Aside from the chief complaint above, her mother mentions that Rei's stools are ribbon-like and foul-smelling. Rei has also been experiencing vomiting and diarrhea. Which condition is the patient most likely to be diagnosed with? A. Intussusception B. Hirschsprung’s Disease C. Celiac Disease D. Irritable Bowel Syndrome 22. Rei’s parents asked what is Hirschsprung’s Disease. Which of the following best explains the pathophysiology of Hirschsprung disease? A. The absence of ganglion cells leads to a lack of peristalsis in the affected segment of the colon, causing a functional obstruction. B. A bacterial infection in the colon causes inflammation and reduces motility, leading to the inability to pass stool. C. An autoimmune reaction in the colon results in the loss of muscle tone, causing the bowel to become dilated. D. The presence of excessive mucus secretion in the colon causes impaction and prevents the passage of stool. 23. Rei’s mother asked what the most serious complication would be if Hirschsprung’s Disease is left untreated. Which of the following would be the correct response? A. Irritable Bowel Syndrome B. Enterocolitis C. Peritonitis D. Appendicitis 24. When selecting an appropriate meal for Rei, which food would you recommend to her mother? A. Brown rice, steak, yogurt B. White rice, glazed chicken, custard C. Donut, dried cranberries, yogurt D. Cookies, chocolate milk, apple 25. Rei is required to undergo surgery to correct her condition. Postoperatively, which interventions should the nurse perform? I. Measure abdominal girth daily and PRN II. Maintain NPO status for 48 to 72 hours III. Assess the stoma for bleeding or skin breakdown IV. Assess the anal area for presence of stool, redness, or discharge V. Maintain nasogastric tube A. I, II B. I, II, III C. I, II, IV, V D. I, II, III, IV, V Situation: As nurses, it is important to be familiar with the psychosocial development of various age groups. 26. A nurse is caring for a hospitalized child in the early childhood stage. According to Erikson's stages of psychosocial development, which of the following nursing actions would be most appropriate? A. Encouraging the child to continue schoolwork while hospitalized. B. Allowing the child to make choices, ensuring safety. C. Taking the health history and physical examination without the parents present. D. Assisting the client in choosing creative ways to foster social development. 27. A nurse is caring for a toddler who is experiencing a tantrum in the playroom. According to Erikson's stages of psychosocial development, and using therapeutic communication, which response by the nurse would be most appropriate? A. "You need to stop crying right now, or you'll have to leave the playroom." 2 | Page Prepared by: ENCARNACION, JESIKAH DE JESUS, JERICHO
B. "It's okay to be angry, but hitting is not safe. How about you choose a different toy to play with?" C. "If you calm down, you can have a candy." D. "I'm ignoring you because you are being naughty." 28. A nurse is working with a school-aged child who has been hospitalized for an extended period. Which of the following interventions would best support their psychosocial development, according to Erikson's stages? A. Offering medical equipment for play. B. Encouraging the child to continue schoolwork while hospitalized. C. Assisting in choosing creative ways to foster social development. D. Listening attentively to reminiscent stories about their life's accomplishments. 29. A school-aged child is upset because they are not able to do their schoolwork while in the hospital. According to Erikson's stages and using therapeutic communication, which is the best nursing response? A. "Don't worry about school, you can catch up later." B. "I know you're frustrated that you're missing school. Would you like to do some school work together?" C. "School isn't important right now, your health is." D. "Just try your best." 30. A nurse is caring for a patient in late adulthood. According to Erikson's stages, which nursing action is most appropriate? A. Offer medical equipment for play. B. Encourage the child to make choices ensuring safety. C. Assist in choosing creative ways to foster social development. D. Listen attentively to reminiscent stories about their life's accomplishments. Situation: Psychosexual Development 31. A nurse is talking with an adolescent who is exploring their sexuality and expresses confusion. Using therapeutic communication and Freud’s theory, what would be the most appropriate response? A. “You don’t need to worry about that. You are too young.” B. “It is best to not experiment with those things. You will regret it.” C. “It sounds like you are exploring your sexuality, and that can be confusing. I’m here to listen if you want to talk about it.” D. “You are just going through a phase, so don’t give it too much thought.” 32. A 3-year-old child is having frequent tantrums during toilet training. According to Freud's psychosexual stages of development, which stage is the child in? A. Oral stage B. Anal stage C. Phallic stage D. Latency stage 33. A 5-year-old child is exhibiting curiosity about their genitals and those of other children. According to Freud's psychosexual stages, which stage is the child in? A. Oral stage B. Anal stage C. Phallic stage D. Latency stage 34. A 10-year-old child seems disinterested in any sexual topics and is focused on developing friendships and academic skills. According to Freud's psychosexual stages, which stage is the child in? A. Oral stage B. Anal stage C. Phallic stage D. Latency stage 35. An adolescent is beginning to explore their sexuality and develop intimate relationships. According to Freud's psychosexual stages, which stage is the adolescent in? A. Anal stage B. Phallic stage C. Latency stage D. Genital stage Situation: A 6-month-old infant is brought to the clinic for a check-up. The infant's mother reports that the child has been experiencing frequent episodes of cyanosis, especially when crying. The nurse also notes the infant has a heart murmur. After further assessment and testing, the infant is diagnosed with Tetralogy of Fallot. 36. Based on the diagnosis of Tetralogy of Fallot, which four defects are present in this infant? A. Ventricular septal defect, atrial septal defect, overriding aorta, and right ventricular hypertrophy. B. Ventricular septal defect, pulmonary stenosis, overriding aorta, and left ventricular hypertrophy. C. Ventricular septal defect, pulmonary stenosis, overriding aorta, and right ventricular hypertrophy. D. Atrial septal defect, pulmonary stenosis, overriding aorta, and right ventricular hypertrophy. 37. The infant's mother reports that the baby becomes cyanotic during crying and feeding. This is likely due to which of the following? A. Increased systemic resistance causing a left-to-right shunt. B. Increased pulmonary resistance causing a right-to-left shunt. C. Decreased pulmonary resistance causing a left-to-right shunt. D. Decreased systemic resistance causing a right-to-left shunt. 38. The nurse notices that the infant is starting to show signs of clubbing in their fingers. What causes this finding? A. A normal variation in infants. B. An abnormal enlargement in the distal phalanges due to chronic hypoxemia. C. A result of an infection of the fingertips. D. A side effect of medications that are used to treat Tetralogy of Fallot. 39. Which of the following surgical interventions is a palliative treatment that is used to manage Tetralogy of Fallot? A. Complete repair with median sternotomy and cardiopulmonary bypass B. Shunt to increase pulmonary blood flow C. Transcatheter closure of the ventricular septal defect D. Valve replacement for pulmonary stenosis 40. The parents ask the nurse when the infant will undergo complete surgical repair of the condition. What would be the best response from the nurse? A. "Complete surgical repair is not indicated for Tetralogy of Fallot." B. "Complete surgical repair is usually performed in the first few months of life." C. "Complete surgical repair is usually performed in the first year of life." D. "Complete surgical repair is usually delayed until after the child is 5 years old." Situation: A 3-month-old infant is brought to the emergency department with a history of increased irritability, poor feeding, and an increasing head circumference. The nurse notes that the anterior fontanel is tense and bulging, and the infant’s pupils are sluggish in response to light. The infant is diagnosed with hydrocephalus. 41. Based on the infant’s symptoms, which of the following best describes the underlying pathophysiology of hydrocephalus? A. A decrease in the production of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). B. An obstruction of CSF flow within the subarachnoid space. C. An imbalance between CSF production and absorption. D. A decrease in intracranial pressure due to a brain tumor. 42. The nurse auscultates the infant’s head and notes a cracked-pot sound. This finding is known as: A. Brudzinski’s sign B. Kernig’s sign C. Macewen’s sign 3 | Page Prepared by: ENCARNACION, JESIKAH DE JESUS, JERICHO
D. Babinski’s sign 43. The nurse observes that the infant’s eyes appear to be deviated downwards, showing the sclera above the iris. This is documented as: A. Strabismus B. Papilledema C. “Setting sun” eyes D. Ataxia 44. Which of the following surgical interventions is used to treat hydrocephalus by diverting excess CSF? A. Craniotomy B. Ventriculoperitoneal shunt C. Laminectomy D. Myringotomy 45. Postoperatively, the nurse is monitoring the infant for signs of shunt malfunction. Which of the following findings in an infant would indicate a potential shunt malfunction? A. Increased appetite and weight gain. B. Decreased head circumference. C. Lethargy, poor feeding, and a high, shrill cry. D. Regular bowel movements and decreased urine output Situation: A 7-year-old child with a known history of sickle cell anemia is admitted to the hospital with complaints of severe pain in the arms, legs and abdomen. The child is also experiencing fever and is noted to be pale and fatigued. 46. Based on the information provided, which of the following is the primary cause of the child’s symptoms in sickle cell anemia? A. An overproduction of normal red blood cells B. A deficiency in white blood cells C. The presence of abnormally shaped red blood cells causing obstruction D. A decrease in iron levels 47. The child’s parents ask about the inheritance of sickle cell anemia. Which statement by the nurse would be most accurate? A. "It is caused by a chromosomal abnormality." B. "It is inherited as an autosomal recessive trait." C. "It is caused by a viral infection." D. "It is inherited as an autosomal dominant trait." 48. The nurse is preparing the child for a screening test for sickle cell anemia. Which test would the nurse likely use? A. Complete blood count (CBC) B. Sickledex test (sickle turbidity test) C. Bone marrow aspiration D. Urinalysis 49. The child is experiencing an acute exacerbation of their condition. Which term best describes this situation? A. Chronic illness B. Vaso-occlusive crisis C. Remission phase D. Hematopoietic crisis 50. The nurse is teaching the parents about factors that can cause the child's sickling crisis. Which of the following factors should the nurse include in the teaching? A. Regular physical exercise B. Excessive intake of iron-rich foods C. Conditions that increase the need for oxygen or alter its transport D. Low altitude environments with plenty of oxygen Situation: You are assessing Marie, a 24-year-old woman, who is pregnant with her 5 th child. 51. Upon interviewing Marie, she mentioned that she gave birth to her first child at 39 weeks, her second child at 35 weeks, her third child at 40 weeks, and her fourth child at 36 weeks. Four of her children are alive. She also had an ectopic pregnancy when she was 18 years old. What is Marie’s OB score? A. 5 2114 B. 5 2214 C. 4 2241 D. 4 2224 52. Marie does not know her LMP. During the physical assessment, the fundus is palpable as a firm globular sphere between the symphysis pubis and the umbilicus. You know that Marie’s pregnancy is how many weeks? A. 12 weeks B. 14 weeks C. 16 weeks D. 20 weeks 53. Based on her age of gestation, when should Marie go back to the clinic for another prenatal visit? A. Next week B. After 2 weeks C. Next month D. Tomorrow 54. Marie asked you, “how can I involve my boyfriend with my pregnancy? It’s his first time going through this.” Your best response would be? A. “Weh? Bagong boyfriend mo?” B. “Maaari mo siyang isama tuwing magpapa-ultrasound ka para sabay ninyong makita si baby.” C. “Depende sakaniya iyan, kayong dalawa na ang magusap tungkol diyan.” D. “Sa tingin ko ‘wag mo nalang siya isama.” 55. You are reviewing Marie’s health record. While doing so, you asked Marie to clarify and confirm her surgical history. You know that asking about past surgery is relevant during a prenatal visit is important because? A. Abdominal incisions are associated with potential uterine rupture B. Adhesions from surgery could limit uterine growth C. Previous surgical experience means that Marie is comfortable to undergo CS D. Previous use of anesthetics is a risk factor for preterm labor. Situation: A pregnant client at 11 weeks gestation is scheduled for a transvaginal ultrasound. 56. What is the primary purpose of a transvaginal ultrasound at this stage of pregnancy? A. To assess fetal movement B. To determine the sex of the fetus C. To check the length of the cervix D. To evaluate placental function 57. What preparation is required for this procedure? A. The client needs to drink water to fill the bladder. B. The client needs to empty the bladder. C. The client needs to fast for 12 hours. D. No specific preparation is mentioned for a transvaginal ultrasound. 58. The client expresses concern about the safety of the procedure. What is the appropriate response? A. "There is a slight risk of infection." B. "There is a small chance of miscarriage." C. "The test presents no known risks to you or your baby." D. "We will monitor you closely for any complications." 59. If the client were undergoing an abdominal ultrasound instead of a transvaginal, what would be a typical preparation? A. Emptying the bladder. B. Drinking water to fill the bladder. C. Fasting for 8 hours. D. No specific preparation is needed. 60. Beyond cervical assessment, what else can ultrasonography be used for during pregnancy? A. Outlining and identifying fetal and birthing parent structures, confirming gestational age and estimated date of delivery, and evaluating amniotic fluid volume. B. Detecting fetal movement only. C. Determining the sex of the fetus only. D. Checking the fetal heart rate only. Situation: A client at 32 weeks gestation is undergoing a nonstress test (NST). 61. What is the primary purpose of the nonstress test? A. To determine the presence of genetic abnormalities. B. To assess placental function and oxygenation. 4 | Page Prepared by: ENCARNACION, JESIKAH DE JESUS, JERICHO