Title RECALLS 4 - NP1 - SC ✅

1 | Page RECALLS 4 EXAMINATION NURSING PRACTICE I COMMUNITY HEALTH NURSING NOV 2025 Philippine Nurse Licensure Examination Review GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS: 1. This test questionnaire contains 100 test questions 2. Shade only one (1) box for each question on your answer sheets. Two or more boxes shaded will invalid your answer. 3. AVOID ERASURES. 4. Detach one (1) answer sheet from the bottom of your Examinee ID/Answer Sheet Set. 5. Write the subject title “NURSING PRACTICE III” on the box provided Situation: Nurse Kim, a community health nurse, initiates a health education session focusing on safe sex practices targeting adolescents and young adults in the community. 1. After a sex education class, the school nurse overhears an adolescent woman discussing safe sex practices. Which of the following comments by the young woman indicates that teaching about infection control was effective? A. “I don’t have to worry about getting infected if I have oral sex.” B. Teen women are most high risk for sexually transmitted infections (STI).” C. “The best thing to do if I have sex a lot is to use spermicide each and every time.” D. “Boys get human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) easier than girls do.” 2. The nurse Kim is teaching an uncircumcised male to use a condom. Which of the following information should be included in the teaching plan? A. Apply mineral oil to the shaft of the penis after applying the condom. B. Pull back the foreskin before applying the condom. C. Create a reservoir at the tip of the condom after putting it on. D. Wait five minutes after ejaculating before removing the condom. 3. She is teaching young women how to use the female condom. Which of the following should be included in the teaching plan? A. Reuse female condoms no more than five times. B. Refrain from using lubricant because the condom may slip out of the vagina. C. Wear both female and male condoms together to maximize effectiveness. D. Remove the condom by twisting the outer ring and pulling gently 4. An adolescent woman confides to the school nurse that she is sexually active. The young woman asks the nurse to recommend a “very reliable” birth control method, but she refuses to be seen by a gynecologist. Which of the following methods would be best for the nurse to recommend? A. Contraceptive patch. B. Withdrawal method. C. Female condom. D. Contraceptive sponge 5. Nurse Kim also advocates for family planning fit according to the lifestyle and preference of the clients. She advocates the following barrier family planning methods, except: A. Condom B. Intrauterine device C. Cervical cap D. Diaphragms Situation: Nurse Ella, a public health nurse, emphasizes the importance of environmental safety and infection control. The following questions apply. 6. Which of the following is the most effective practice by healthcare workers and family members when caring for a patient with low resistance to infection due to cancer? A. Wear mask in the patient’s room at all times B. Wash hands frequently C. Allow 2 visitors only at a time D. Meticulous housekeeping of the patient’s room 7. Nurse She works in the Medical Unit. The nurse should implement droplet precautions for which of the following diseases. 1. Shigellosis 2. Cellulitis 3. Pertussis 4. Multi-drug Resistance Infection 5. Pneumonia A. 1,3,5 B. 2,4,5 C. 2, 3 D. 3, 5 8. Which of the following infections is not a droplet precaution? A. Shingles B. Scarlet fever C. Pertussis D. Fifth disease 9. Several clients are admitted to an adult medical unit. The nurse would ensure airborne precautions for a client with which of the following medical conditions? A. A diagnosis of AIDS and cytomegalovirus B. A positive PPD with an abnormal chest x-ray C. A tentative diagnosis of viral pneumonia D. Mycoplasma pneumonia 10. Which medical asepsis actions should the nurse implement to reduce and prevent the spread of microorganisms? 1. Practicing hand hygiene 2. Reapplying a sterile dressing 3. Sterilizing contaminated items 4. Routinely cleaning the hospital environment 5. Wearing clean gloves to prevent direct contact with blood A. 1, 4, 5 B. 1, 2, 3 C. 1, 3, 5 D. 3, 4, 5 Situation: Community Health Nurse Kate is providing health teaching to Brgy. Mapayapa regarding the classification of infectious disease. The following questions are discussed. 11. Which of the following best differentiates infectious diseases from contagious diseases? A. Infectious diseases are always deadly, contagious diseases are not B. Contagious diseases are transmitted through blood only C. All infectious diseases are contagious D. Not all infectious diseases are contagious * NLE * NCLEX * CGFNS * HAAD * PROMETRICS * DHA * MIDWIFERY * LET * RAD TECH * CRIMINOLOGY * DENTISTRY * PHARMACY *
2 | Page 12. Nurse Kate mentions that dengue fever is constantly present in the Philippines. This pattern of disease occurrence is best classified as: A. Sporadic B. Epidemic C. Endemic D. Pandemic 13. A sudden increase in cases of measles in a certain province exceeds the usual expected number. This is best classified as: A. Sporadic B. Endemic C. Epidemic D. Pandemic 14. _____________ is the simultaneous occurrence of an epidemic of the same disease in several countries. A. sporadic B. epidemic C. endemic D. pandemic 15. A single case of rabies was reported in a community where the disease is not usually found. This is best described as: A. Sporadic B. Endemic C. Epidemic D. Pandemic 16. During the health teaching about rabies, a participant asks, “How can you get the virus?”. The Nurse explains that the virus can be transmitted by which source? A. Saliva B. Blood C. Urine D. Stool Situation: Khea is reviewing for the November 2025 PNLE and wants to master concepts related to communicable and non communicable diseases. The following questions apply. 17. Gonorrhea is a sexually transmitted infection that can affect multiple areas of the body. Which of the following is least likely to be infected by gonorrhea? A. Anus B. Eyes C. Skin D. Throat 18. What is the incubation period of gonorrhea? A. 1-3 days B. 2-10 days C. 10-14 days D. 10-21 days 19. Among the following diseases, which is airborne? A. Viral conjunctivitis B. Acute poliomyelitis C. Diphtheria D. Measles 20. At which part of the body does the measles rash usually appear first? A. Chest B. Face C. Back D. Extremities 21. If an individual is in acute phase of filariasis, what symptoms might you expect to see? A. Lymphangitis, lymphadenitis, epididymitis B. Hydrocele, lymphedema, elephantiasis C. Orchitis, hydrocele, elephantiasis D. Lymphangitis, lymphedema, orchitis 22. Which organism is recognized as the vector for filariasis? A. Brugia malayi B. Wuchereria bancrofti C. Aedes poicelius D. Anopheles mosquito 23. Filariasis is caused by parasitic worms like wuchereria bancrofti, which primarily invade the: A. Respiratory system B. Gastrointestinal system C. Urinary tract system D. Lymphatic system 24. A 4-year old client was brought to the health center with the chief complaint of severe diarrhea and the passage of “rice water” stools. The client is most probably suffering from which condition? A. Giardiasis B. Cholera C. Amebiasis D. Dysentery 25. What is the mode of transmission of poliomyelitis? A. Blood-borne transmission B. Fecal- oral route C. Vector-borne transmission D. Airborne droplets Situation: Every food establishment must be aware of and implement proper food sanitation programs to ensure public safety. The following questions apply. 26. The following belongs to the four rights of food safety, except? A. Right Source B. Right Cooking C. Right Preparation D. Right Consumption 27. In “Right Cooking,” when reheating food, all parts of the food should reach at least what temperature to ensure safety? A. 40°C B. 50°C C. 55°C D. 70°C 28. In “right storage”, all cooked foods should be left at a room temperature for NOT more than how many hour(s) to prevent multiplication of bacteria? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 29. The food handler would like to store food for 4–5 hours. Under hot conditions, at what minimum temperature should the food be kept to prevent bacterial growth? A. At least 20°C B. At least 30°C C. At least 50°C D. At least 60°C 30. The nurse teaches food handlers to always buy fresh meat, fish, fruits, and vegetables and to use water only from clean and safe sources. This practice is part of: A. Right source B. Right preparation C. Right cooking D. Right consumption Situation: The Expanded Program on Immunization (EPI) is a crucial public health initiative aimed at protecting children from vaccine-preventable diseases. As a community nurse, understanding the schedule, proper vaccine handling, and cold chain management is essential in promoting health and preventing disease in the population 31. All of the following are vaccine preventable diseases, EXCEPT: A. Measles B. Poliomyelitis C. Diptheria D. Malaria 32. Biological used in immunization are stored in different compartments of the refrigerator to keep it potent. Which biological used in EPI is stored in the freezer? A. DPT B. Tetanus Toxoid C. OPV D. Hepatitis B vaccine 33. Temperature monitoring of vaccines is done in all levels of health facilities to ensure vaccine potency. How many times should the nurse check and record the temperature of the vaccine storage unit? A. Once daily B. Twice daily C. Thrice daily D. Every 4 hours 34. The route of administration of measles vaccines is?
3 | Page A. Oral B. ID C. Subcutaneous D. Intravenous 35. The rural health nurse is to administer BCG vaccine to a newborn, she is incorrect when she: A. uses sterile cotton and alcohol to clean the site B. uses cotton ball moistened with water to clean the site C. hold the syringe with the bevel up and the scale pointing towards her D. withdraw the needle gently after injection 36. A 2-month old infant was brought to the health center for immunization. During assessment, the infant’s temperature registered at 38.1 °C. Which is the best course of action that you will take? A. Go on with the infant’s immunization B. Give paracetamol and wait for his fever to subside C. Refer the infant to the physician for further assessment D. Advise the infant’s mother to bring him back for immunization when he is when. 37. The child is considered fully immunized child if he receives all of the following before his 1 st birthday? A. 1 dose of BCG, 2 doses of OPV, 2 doses of DPT, 3 doses of HB, and 1 dose of measles B. 1 dose of BCG, 3 doses of OPV, 3 doses of DPT, 3 doses of HB, and 1 dose of measles C. 1 dose of BCG, 2 doses of OPV, 3 doses of DPT, 3 doses of HB, and 1 dose of measles D. 1 dose of BCG, 3 doses of OPV, 2 doses of DPT, 3 doses of HB, and 1 dose of measles 38. A pregnant woman had just received her 4 th dose of Tetanus Toxoid. Subsequenty, her baby will have protection against tetenus for how long? A. 1 year B. 3 years C. 10 years 39. The Oral Polio Vaccine (OPV) is given in a specific dosage to ensure it’s effectiveness. What is the standard dosage for OPV? A. 0.5 mL B. 1 mL C. 2 drops D. 4 drops 40. What is the proper site for administering the birth dose of Hepatitis B vaccine? A. Left deltoid B. Right deltoid C. Anterolateral thigh D. Gluteal muscle Situation: Every nurse must be well-informed about RA 9173 to uphold professional standards and provide safe, quality care. 41. A nurse may have their certificate of registration or license revoked or suspended by the Board of Nursing for all of the following reasons, EXCEPT: A. For unprofessional and unethical conduct B. For incompetence or ignorance C. For malpractice or negligence in the practice of nursing D. practicing his/her profession during his/her suspension from such practice 42. According to Republic Act 9173, after how many years can the Board re-issue a revoked certificate of registration/professional license, provided that the cause for revocation has been resolved? A. 1 year B. 2 years C. 3 years D. 4 years 43. The Board of Nursing is composed of how many members? A. 1 chairperson; 5 members B. 1 chairperson; 6 members C. 1 chairperson; 7 members D. 1 chairperson; 8 members 44. In section 9, the Board of Nursing have the power to do all of the following, except? A. Conduct the licensure examination for nurses B. Issue, suspend or revoke certificates of registration for the practice of nursing C. Issue subpoena ad testificandum and subpoena duces tecum D. Authority to open and close colleges of nursing and/or nursing education programs 45. Nurse Elena, a 42-year-old registered nurse, stopped working to care for her children and has not practiced nursing for 6 years. Now that her children are older, she wants to return to hospital work, thus she is required to undergo? A. one (1) month of didactic training and three (3) months of practicum B. three (3) months of didactic training and one (1) month of practicum C. two (two) months of didactic training and six (6) months of practicum D. six (6) months of didactic training and two (2) months of practicum Situation: The Public Health Nurse fulfills multiple roles in delivering quality care to individuals, families, and communities. 46. Nurse Riza provides direct care to a child with pneumonia during a home visit. What role is she performing? A. Educator B. Clinician C. Leader D. Advocate 47. During a local health planning meeting, Nurse Bianca coordinates with DepEd to launch a school-based deworming program. What role is this? A. Supervisor B. Health Educator C. Leader D. Facilitator 48. Nurse Ella prepares a training plan and monitors the performance of the midwife in RHU. This best illustrates her role as a: A. Supervisor B. Manager C. Researcher D. Facilitator 49. During a staff meeting, Nurse Thea sets the direction for upcoming outreach activities and delegates tasks. She is acting as a: A. Clinician B. Health Educator C. Leader/Manager D. Researcher 50. During a home visit, the PHN collects data on the number of tuberculosis cases in the barangay. This is an example of the nurse’s role as a: A. Clinician B. Educator C. Researcher D. Leader Situation: Nurse Shukla is responsible for implementing proper waste segregation practices in a hospital to ensure safety and compliance with environmental regulations. 51. Nurse Shukla encounters used needles, syringes, and scalpel blades in the hospital ward. Which color-coded bin should she use for disposing of these items? A. Black B. Green C. Yellow D. Red 52. Soiled gloves and blood-soaked gauze must be disposed of in which bin? A. Yellow B. Green C. Red D. Black 53. Nurse Shukla collects used paper products and packaging materials from administrative areas. Which color-coded bin should she designate for disposing of these items?
4 | Page A. Black B. Green C. Pink D. Orange 54. A student nurse asks what types of waste go in the orange container. The best response is: A. "Used PPE from isolation rooms." B. "Needles and sharps waste." C. "Radioactive materials from nuclear procedures." D. "Contaminated cotton balls and gauze." 55. Nurse Shukla is teaching student nurses about hospital waste segregation. Which item belongs to the green bin? A. Half-eaten sandwich B. Face mask C. Blood-stained gauze D. Contaminated PPE Situation: Nurse Batumbs is assigned to different patients in the medical ward. 56. A newly admitted female client was diagnosed with agranulocytosis. The nurse formulates which priority nursing diagnosis? A. Constipation B. Diarrhea C. Risk for infection D. Deficient knowledge 57. A female client was recently admitted. She has fever, weight loss, and watery diarrhea is being admitted to the facility. While assessing the client, Nurse Batumbs inspects the client’s abdomen and notice that it is slightly concave. Additional assessment should proceed in which order: A. Palpation, auscultation, and percussion. B. Percussion, palpation, and auscultation. C. Palpation, percussion, and auscultation. D. Auscultation, percussion, and palpation 58. Nurse Betty is assessing tactile fremitus in a client with pneumonia. For this examination, nurse Betty should use the: A. Fingertips B. Finger pads C. Dorsal surface of the hand D. Ulnar surface of the hand 59. Nurse Linda prepares to perform an otoscopic examination on a female client. For proper visualization, the nurse should position the client's ear by: A. Pulling the lobule down and back B. Pulling the helix up and forward C. Pulling the helix up and back D. Pulling the lobule down and forward Situation: Accurate documentation is the hallmark nursing responsibility and accountability of a nurse. 60. Nurse Amy has documented an entry regarding client care in the client’s medical record. When checking the entry, the nurse realizes that incorrect information was documented. How does the nurse correct this error? A. Erases the error and writes in the correct information. B. Uses correction fluid to cover up the incorrect information and writes in the correct information. C. Draws one line to cross out the incorrect information and then initials the change. D. Covers up the incorrect information completely using a black pen and writes in the correct information 61. Dr. Garcia writes the following order for the client who has been recently admitted “Digoxin .125 mg P.O. once daily.” To prevent a dosage error, how should the nurse document this order onto the medication administration record? A. “Digoxin .1250 mg P.O. once daily” B. “Digoxin 0.1250 mg P.O. once daily” C. “Digoxin 0.125 mg P.O. once daily” D. “Digoxin .125 mg P.O. once daily” 62. The nurse observes that Mr. Adams begins to have increased difficulty breathing. She elevates the head of the bed to the high Fowler position, which decreases his respiratory distress. The nurse documents this breathing as: A. Tachypnea B. Eupnea C. Orthopnea D. Hyperventilation 63. After making a documentation error, which action should the nurse take? A. Use correcting liquid to cover the mistake and make a new entry. B. Draw a line through it and write error above the entry. C. Draw a line through it and write mistaken entry above it. D. Draw a line through the mistake and write mistaken entry with initials above it. 64. Which charting entry would be the most defensible in court? A. Client fell out of bed B. Client drunk on admission C. Large bruise on left thigh D. Notified Dr. Jones of BP of 90/40 65. You are assigned to Mrs. Amado, age 49, who was admitted for possible surgey. She complained of recurrent pain at the right upper quadrant of the abdomen 1-2 hours after ingestion of fatty food. She also had frequent bouts of dizziness, blood pressure of 170/100, hot flashes. Which of the above symptoms would be an objective cue? A. Blood pressure measurement of 170/100 B. Complaint of hot flashes C. Report of pain after ingestion of fatty food D. Complaint of frequent bouts of dizziness Situation: Malnutrition continues to be the public health concerns in the country. Nurse Chares is assigned to a rural barangay, conducting a nutrition education session for mothers of under-five children to promote proper nutrition practices. 66. Food fortification is mandated by specific Republic Act. Which Republic Act establishes the Food Fortification Program in the Philippines? A. RA 9173 B. RA 11223 C. RA 8172 D. RA 8976 67. Philippine Food Fortification Act of 2000 mandates which of the following staple foods to be fortified? A. Refined sugar, salt, cooking oil, and wheat flour B. Rice, sugar, salt, cooking oil C. Meat, eggs, and vegetables D. Refined sugar, cooking oil, rice, wheat flour 68. Nurse Chares explains that several staple foods are fortified. Which of the following food products is fortified with vitamin A? A. Cooking Oil B. Soy C. Rice D. Vinegar 69. Aling Nene asks, “My family consumes a lot of rice. Is there any fortification done with rice?” Nurse Chares confirms that rice is indeed fortified. Which micronutritient is primarily added to rice? A. Iron B. Iodine C. Vitamin D D. Zinc 70. Nurse Chares mentions that wheat flour is also fortified. Which nutrients are mandated to be added to wheat flour? A. Iron and Iodine B. Vitamin A and Iron C. Vitamin C and Iron D. Vitamin D and Iron Situation: Kent, a 4th-year BSN student, is currently reviewing the Sustainable Developmental Goals in preparation for the PNLE. 71. Which SDG is health centered that aims to ensure healthy lives and promote well-being for all at all ages? A. SDG 5 B. SDG 4 C. SDG 3 D. SDG 2