Title FC MS1 - SC (Dr. Arreglo).docx ✅

3 | Page 34. Some different habits and hobbies affect postoperative respiratory function. If your client smokes 3 packs of cigarettes a day for the past 10 years, you will anticipate increased risk for: A. perioperative anxiety and stress B. delayed coagulation time C. delayed wound healing D. postoperative respiratory dysfunction 35. Which of the following roles would be the responsibility of the scrub nurse? A. Assess the readiness of the client prior to surgery B. Ensure that the airway is adequate C. Account for the number of sponges, needles, supplies, Used during the surgical procedure D. Evaluate the type of anesthesia appropriate for the surgical client 36. It is also the nurse’s function to determine when infection is developing in the surgical incision. The perioperative nurse should observe for what signs of impending infection? A. Localized heat and redness B. Serosanguinous exudates and skin blanching C. Separation of the incision D. Blood clots and scar tissue are visible 37. You identified a potential risk of pre and postoperative clients. To reduce the risk of patient harm resulting from fall, you can implement the following EXCEPT: A. Assess potential risk of fall associated with the patient’s conditions EXCEPT: medication regimen B. Take action to address any identified risks through Incident Report (IR) C. Allow client to walk with relative to the OR D. Assess and periodically reassess individual client’s risk for falling 38. After an abdominal surgery, the circulating and scrub nurses have critical responsibility about sponge and Instrument count.   When is the first sponge/instrument count reported? A. Before closing the subcutaneous layer B. Before peritoneum is closed C. Before closing the skin D. Before the fascia is sutured 39. Which of the following is true about wound evisceration? A. Occurs 6-8 hours post op B. Occurs as a consequence of anesthesia C. Has increased risk of infection D. Can be prevented by abdominal exercises 40. Which of the following evaluation outcomes tells the nurse that the interventions to a client with COPD are effective? A. The client has RR 32 cpm B. The client has crackles C. The client exhibits intolerance to activity D. The client is maintained on low flow oxygen 41. A client with COPD has a history of smoking 2 packs of cigarettes for 15 years. Compute for the pack years the patient had smoked A. 30 pack years B. 15 pack years C. 40 pack years D. 600 pack years 42. Which of the following conditions in a client with Emphysema needs further assessment? A. Pulse oximeter reading is 93% B. The clients arterial blood gas is 75 C. The client has dyspnea in walking to the kitchen D. The client has fever 43. A client with chronic bronchitis comes to the emergency room in acute exacerbation. The nurse knows that the one prominent clinical manifestation of this condition A. Dyspnea B. Cough C. Fever D. Rusty sputum 44. The nurse diagnosed a client with COPD with impaired gas exchange. Which of the following outcomes is appropriate for the diagnosis? A. The client drinks 2 – 3 liters of fluid per day B. The client demonstrates the correct way to purse – lip breathe C. The client is able to ambulate to the bathroom without dyspnea D. The client is able to identify early symptoms of exacerbation 45. The nurse is assessing a client recently diagnosed with chronic bronchitis. Which of the following findings is not expected? A. Clubbing of the client’s fingers. B. Frequent respiratory infections. C. Productive cough D. Flushing of face 46. The nurse is assessing a client with acute attack of bronchial asthma. Which of the following symptoms would the nurse expect to find? A. Fever B. Rales C. Wheezing D. Barrel chest 47. The nurse knows that an attack of asthma is becoming severe if which of the following occurs? A. Louder wheezing B. Severe intercostal retraction C. Respiratory rate of 25 D. Diminished breath sounds 48. A client with mild intermittent asthma will receive A. Inhaled steroids B. Oral steroids C. Bronchodilator & steroids inhaler D. Leukotriene agonists 49. Which of the following statements is correct about mast cell stabilizers? A. “I should take two (2) puffs when I begin to have an asthma attack.” B. “I must taper off the medications and not stop taking them abruptly.” C. “These drugs will be most effective if taken at bedtime.” D. “These drugs are not good at the time of an attack.” 50. The nurse is checking the spirometry results of a client with acute exacerbation of bronchial asthma. Which of the following is unexpected finding in this client? A. Increased residual volume B. Decreased expiratory reserve volume C. Increased tidal volume D. Increased functional residual capacity 51. Which of the following assessment findings would indicate a possible bronchial asthma? A. Low O2 saturation B. Swelling caused by histamine release C. Wheezing on inspiration D. Wheezing on expiration E. All of the above 52. The nurse knows that bronchodilators act by A. Relaxing the smooth muscles of the bronchioles B. Loosens phlegm C. Decreasing edema of the bronchi D. Prevent histamine release 53. Which of the following is the most common clinical manifestation of pulmonary embolism? A. Positive Homan’s sign B. Crushing chest pain and diaphoresis C. Bilateral crackles and cough
4 | Page D. Sudden onset of chest pain and dyspnea 54. When assessing a client with chest trauma. Which of the following indicates a possible pneumothorax? A. Adventitious sound and dyspnea B. Tracheal deviation and absent breath sounds C. Frothy bloody sputum and consolidation. D. Flat sound on percussion, absent breath sound and dyspnea 55. Flail chest development in a client after trauma will show the following assessment finding except? A. Paradoxical breathing B. A symmetrical chest expansion C. Pain on expiration D. No exception 56. Management of flail chest include the following except A. Narcotics as ordered B. Mechanical ventilation C. Support lung function D. No exception 57. The nurse is monitoring a client who has a right sided chest tube inserted two hours ago. Which of the following should be implemented if the nurse notices that the water seal chamber has no fluctuation? A. Assess for leakage B. Increase the amount of wall suction. C. Check the tubing for kinks or clots. D. Monitor the client’s pulse oximeter reading. 58. A client who has a left sided chest tube refuses to do deep breathing exercises due to pain. Which of the following should be done by the nurse? A. Administer pain medication prior to deep breathing exercises. B. Encourage the client to take shallow breaths to help with the pain. C. Explain that deep breaths do not have to be taken at this time. D. Tell the client that if he doesn’t take deep breaths, he could die 59. The nurse is discussing pneumothorax with a group of nursing students. Which statement is correct about tension pneumothorax? A. A tension pneumothorax develops when an air-filled bleb on the surface of the lung ruptures. B. When a tension pneumothorax occurs, the air moves freely between the pleural space and the atmosphere. C. The injury allows air into the pleural space but prevents it from escaping from the pleural space D. A tension pneumothorax results from a puncture of the pleura during a central line placement. 60. The nurse receives an order that the chest tubes will be removed in 30 minutes. Which of the following should be done first? A. Prepare the needed equipment B. Administer analgesic as ordered C. Inform the X ray department D. Position the client 61. Which expected outcome should be given priority in the nursing care plan for a patient with adult respiratory distress syndrome: A. systolic BP blood pressure greater than 90 mmHg B. oxygen saturation greater than 95% C. respiration rate lees than 20/min D. heart rate lees than 100/min 62. The nurse is caring for a patient who has just had an endotracheal tube inserted. Which of the following actions would the nurse take first: A. inflate the cuff with appropriate volume B. auscultate for bilateral breath sound C. tape the tube securely in place D. suction the pulmonary secretion 63. The client diagnosed with ARDS is transferred to the intensive care department and placed on a ventilator. Which intervention should the nurse implement first? A. Confirm that the ventilator settings are correct. B. Verify that the ventilator alarms are functioning properly. C. Assess the respiratory status and pulse oximeter reading. D. Monitor the client’s arterial blood gas results. 64. Which of the following assessment date would make the nurse suspect of developing ARDS? A. Low arterial oxygen when administering high concentration of oxygen. B. The client is in severe respiratory distress C. Breath sounds are clear but pulse oximeter reading is low D. The client has distended neck veins and cough 65. A client with ARDS is hooked to a mechanical ventilator, which assessment finding would the nurse suspect that the client develops complication secondary to ventilator? A. Urine output is 100 ml in 2 hours B. The cardiac monitor is showing sinus tachycardia C. Diminished breath sound on one lung D. Pulse oximeter greater than 95% 66. The STAT ABG in a client with ARDS were as follows pH 7.38, PaO2 92, PaCO2 38, HCO3 24. What is the priority action by the nurse? A. Continue to monitor the client without taking any action. B. Encourage the client to take deep breaths and cough. C. Administer one (1) amp of sodium bicarbonate IVP. D. Notify the respiratory therapist of the ABG results. 67. A client is diagnosed to have ARDS. The nurse knows that ARDS is A. Caused by an acute lung injury B. Causing sudden pulmonary edema C. Manifesting poor lung compliance D. All of the above E. Caused by acute lung injury and sudden pulmonary edema 68. The nurse is preparing a plan to a client post pleurodesis. Which of the following is a collaborative intervention for this patient? A. Monitor the amount of the drainage B. Perform complete respiratory assessment every 2 hours C. Administer Morphine sulfate IV D. Monitor vital signs 69. Pleurodesis is done to A. Decrease rate of fluid accumulation B. Separate pleural membranes C. Prevent another thoracentesis D. All of the above 70. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic bronchitis for recurrent pneumonia. The client is at risk for developing bronchiectasis. The nurse anticipate that the doctor will order for which of the following? A. Intravenous antibiotic for 7 to 10 days B. Provide low calorie and low sodium diet C. Start TPN D. Encourage the client to turn, cough and deep breathe frequently 71. Which of the following assessment data indicate that the client is having Pleural effusion on the right side? A. Crackles and diminished breath sound on the right side B. Vesicular breath sounds on the left and resonant on percussion C. Absent breath sound and flat on percussion on the right side D. Pain on the left side on deep inspiration and difficulty of breathing 72. The client is undergoing spirometry to assess pulmonary function. The student nurse asks the staff nurse, what does it mean when they say that the dead space volume is increased, the staff nurse is correct by saying A. Increased dead space volume means the air that is left in the lung after forceful expiration is increased