Title WORKBOOK - PHARMA (SC) ✅

1 | Page COMPREHENSIVE PHASE WORKBOOK NURSING PHARMACOLOGY NOV 2025 Philippine Nurse Licensure Examination Review 1. The nurse is preparing to administer insulin to a client with diabetes mellitus for which of the following purposes? A. Relief of disease manifestations B. Preventive C. Health maintenance D. Curative 2. The nurse is collecting a medication history. Which of the following questions would elicit the most accurate information? Select all that apply: 1. “Do you take any herbal supplements?” 2. “What time of day do you go to bed?” 3. “What is the highest level of education you completed?” 4. “Do you have a vision or hearing impairment?” 5. “Where do you eat most of your meals?” 6. “Do you have drug insurance coverage?” A. 1, 3, 6 B. 2, 4, 5 C. 1, 3, 4, 6 D. 2, 3, 4, 5 3. Which of the following should the nurse include in the oral drug administration procedure? A. Administer a drug to a 3-year-old child as a capsule B. Administer two drugs at a time to an older adult client C. Administer a carbonated beverage over ice following a drug D. Administer a sustained action buccal drug under the tongue 4. The nurse should assess which of the following body systems while administering intravenous cimetidine (Tagamet) to a client? A. Urinary B. Immune C. Respiratory D. Cardiovascular 5. Which of the following should the nurse include when administering drugs by a nasogastric tube? A. Crush the drug before administering through a feeding tube B. Flush between drugs with 10 ml of sterile water C. Administer one drug with 30 ml of water D. Maintain the client in an upright position for 15 minutes following drug administration 6. Which of the following principles of parenteral drug administration is a priority for the nurse to consider before administering a parenteral injection to a 2-year-old child? A. Apply EMLA (lidocaine 2.5% and prilocaine 2.5%) to the injection site 1 hour before administering the injection B. Lightly tap the injection site before administering the injection C. Administer up to 1 ml of the prescribed drug to the injection site D. Select the vastus lateralis for the administration of the drug 7. The nurse selects which of the following isotonic intravenous solutions for the primary purpose of promoting rehydration and elimination, while providing a good vehicle for potassium replacement? A. Sodium chloride 0.45% B. Dextrose 5% in water C. Dextrose 5% in 0.45% saline D. Ringer’s lactate 8. The nurse is preparing the client assignments for the day. Which of the following assignments would be appropriate for the registered nurse (RN) to assign to a licensed practical nurse (LPN)? A. Administer a drug to a client who has an implantable intravenous infusion port B. Insert an angiocath into the medial antebrachial vein of a client going to surgery C. Instruct a client on the advantages of an autologous blood transfusion D. Discontinue a client’s peripheral IV site 9. The nurse prepares to hang which of the following for a client with thrombocytopenia? A. Whole blood B. Packed red blood cells C. Platelets D. Albumin 10. The nurse is caring for a client who admits to a 15-year history of gastric ulcers. The nurse instructs this client to take which of the following drugs for minor aches and pains? A. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) B. Buffered aspirin C. Plain aspirin D. Ibuprofen (Motrin) 11. The nurse should question which of the following drugs for use in a client who has glaucoma? A. Acetazolamide (Diamox) B. Pilocarpine C. Atropine sulfate D. Mannitol 12. The nurse is administering an adrenergic blocking agent, such as a beta blocker, to a client with glaucoma. Which of the following would the nurse interpret as indicative of a serious adverse reaction? A. Photophobia B. Blurred vision C. Drop in blood pressure D. Exacerbation of asthma 13. The nurse administers which of the following drugs to a client who has keratitis? A. Acyclovir (Zovirax) B. Acetazolamide (Diamox) C. Scopolamine (Isopto Hyoscine) D. Idoxuridine (Stoxil) 14. The nurse is to administer timolol (Timoptic) 1 drop in each eye. Which of the following comments by the client indicates the need for further teaching? A. “I must wash my hands before putting in my drops.” B. “This drug will decrease the fluid in my eye.” C. “I’ll need to take this until my eye pressure is normal.” D. “Adverse reactions include dizziness and double vision.” 15. The nurse instructs the client that the best position for instilling nose spray is to A. bend the head forward. B. push one nare to the side. C. tilt the head backward. D. open the mouth to facilitate breathing. 16. The nurse is assigned to administer eyedrops to a client being prepared for cataract surgery. Which of the following types of eyedrop does the nurse expect to administer? A. An osmotic diuretic B. A miotic agent * NLE * NCLEX * CGFNS * HAAD * PROMETRICS * DHA * MIDWIFERY * LET * RAD TECH * CRIMINOLOGY * DENTISTRY * PHARMACY *
2 | Page C. A mydriatic agent D. A thiazide diuretic 17. A client is experiencing peptic ulcer disease caused by H. pylori. The nurse should plan to administer which of the following oral drug combinations? Clarithromycin (Biaxin) with A. tetracycline (Achromycin) with sodium bicarbonate (baking soda). B. metronidazole (Flagyl) and aluminum hydroxide (Amphogel). C. amoxicillin (Amoxil) and omeprazole (Prilosec). D. penicillin (Pen-G) and nizatidine (Axid). 18. A client with Ménière’s disease asks the nurse why meclizine hydrochloride (Antivert) is being administered. The most appropriate response by the nurse is which of the following? A. “It will control the vertigo.” B. “It will help you sleep.” C. “It will decrease your pain.” D. “It will alleviate your nausea.” 19. The nurse is collecting a medication history from a client with herpes simplex 1 of the eye. The nurse should ask the client if which of the following drugs are taken? A. Trifluridine (Viroptic) B. Cromolyn C. Idoxuridine (Stoxil) D. Acetazolamide (Diamox) 20. The nurse should understand that a client is to receive which of the following drugs to paralyze the ciliary body muscles? A. Phenylephrine HCl (Neo-Synephrine) B. Homatropine C. Hydroxyamphetamine-hydrobromide (Paredrine) D. Cromolyn 21. A client has been receiving intravenous theophylline and the physician writes new orders to discontinue the IV medication and begin an immediate-release oral form of the medication. When should the nurse schedule the first dose of the oral medication to be administered? A. Immediately after stopping the intravenous infusion of theophylline B. Begin 4 to 6 hours after stopping the intravenous infusion of theophylline C. Begin the initial dose at bedtime D. Start the oral dose with the morning medications and breakfast 22. A client with acute asthma is treated for inspiratory and expiratory wheezes and a decreased forced expiratory volume. Which class of prescribed drugs should the nurse administer first to this client? A. Oral steroids B. Bronchodilators C. Inhaled steroids D. Mucolytics 23. The nurse is admitting a client with asthma who is to be started on theophylline. Which of the following questions would be appropriate to ask this client? A. “Are you a diabetic and taking insulin?” B. “Do you take cimetidine (Tagamet)?” C. “Do you use aspirin on a daily basis?” D. “Do you exercise routinely?” 24. After instructing a client to use a beclomethasone (Vanceril) inhaler, which of the following statements by the client indicates to the nurse that the teaching has been successful? A. “I will limit myself to two cups of coffee per day.” B. “I will take it before bed each night.” C. “I will take it with meals to mask the taste.” D. “I will rinse my mouth after each use.” 25. Which of the following statements made by the client indicates to the nurse that the client does not understand how to use cromolyn sodium (Intal) and is in need of further instructions? A. “If I don’t feel better in 2 to 3 weeks, I should stop taking the medication.” B. “I will call my doctor if this medication causes severe coughing.” C. “I have to take this medication routinely, even when I feel good.” D. “I do not stop my other medications just because I’m taking this one.” 26. When instructing a client to use a metered dose inhaler, it would be essential for the nurse to include which of the following aspects? Instruct the client to A. hold the breath for 3 seconds after using the inhaler. B. take a quick deep breath after activating the canister. C. activate the canister at the beginning of a slow deep breath. D. place the canister 6 inches in front of an open mouth. 27. A client who has asthma asks the nurse why the preferred route of administration for corticosteroids is inhalation. The appropriate response by the nurse is which of the following? A. “Inhaled medications are easier to take.” B. “The systemic adverse reactions are reduced.” C. “No weaning is required when stopping the drug.” D. “Oral care is not required.” 28. A client with asthma awakens in the middle of the night with an asthma attack. Which of the following inhaler medications should the nurse administer first? A. Albuterol (Proventil) B. Triamcinolone acetonide (Azmacort) C. Fluticasone propionate (Flovent) D. Cromolyn (Intal) 29. After a client diagnosed with pneumonia has an episode of respiratory distress, the client is intubated and placed on a ventilator. The breath sounds are diminished and the chest x- ray shows left lower lobe consolidation. The physician orders respiratory treatments with acetylcysteine (Mucomyst). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following results from this treatment? A. Bronchodilation B. Increased sputum, removed with suctioning C. Decreased level of consciousness D. Hypotension 30. The nurse is caring for a client with lung cancer who has an intractable cough and is exhausted from the effort of coughing. Which of the following drugs should the nurse administer to this client? A. Rifampin (Rifadin) B. Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst) C. Fluticasone (Flovent) D. Codeine 31. Which of the following treatments is the priority for the nurse to administer to a client who has a positive tuberculosis (TB) skin test but has no other evidence of active disease? A. No treatment and repeat skin test in 6 months B. Isoniazid (INH) for 12 months C. Multidrug therapy for at least 12 months D. Streptomycin for 12 months 32. The nurse is developing a medication schedule for a client who is receiving isoniazid (INH). To promote the best absorption, this medication would be administered A. on an empty stomach. B. with antacids to relieve stomach upset. C. with food. D. 30 minutes after meals. 33. Which of the following is the priority for the nurse to monitor in a client who has been on a ventilator and on 70% FIO2 for the past 72 hours? A. Atelectasis B. Pulmonary fibrosis C. Expense to client D. Oxygen dependence 34. The nurse is caring for a client who has chronic obstructive lung disease (COPD) and pneumonia. After being extubated, which of the following orders should the nurse question? A. Continuation of the current antibiotics B. O2 per nasal cannula at 6 L/min C. Out of bed with assistance D. Continuation of current nebulizer treatments 35. The nurse is preparing to teach a class on the appropriate use of nebulizers and metered dose inhalers. Which of the following should the nurse include in the class? A. Metered dose inhalers require a gas flow rate of 6 to 10 L/min B. Nebulizers deliver medication through a face mask or mouthpiece C. Nebulizers deliver doses in puffs D. Metered dose inhalers require refrigeration
3 | Page 36. Which of the following is the priority for the nurse to assess before administering digoxin (Lanoxin)? A. Auscultate the apical pulse for 1 full minute B. Palpate the radial pulse for 60 seconds C. Monitor the renal function tests D. Assess the serum sodium 37. Upon finding a client in cardiac arrest, the nurse should administer which of the following drugs first? A. Atropine B. Epinephrine C. Lidocaine D. Atenolol (Tenormin) 38. After medication teaching on atenolol (Tenormin), which of the following statements by a client with diabetes mellitus demonstrates an understanding of the atenolol? A. “It may cause hyperglycemia.” B. “It may mask an early indication of hypoglycemia.” C. “It may increase the action of insulin.” D. “It may diminish the action of insulin.” 39. The nurse is caring for a client with hypertension. Which of the following drugs should the nurse administer? A. Mexiletine (Mexitil) B. Triamterene and hydrochlorothiazide (Dyazide) C. Digoxin (Lanoxin) D. Warfarin 40. Based on an understanding of nitroglycerin, the nurse administers it for which of the following reasons to a client with angina? A. Increase afterload B. Increase preload C. Constrict the arteries D. Dilate the veins 41. The nurse is caring for a client with atrial fibrillation who is being treated with a variety of drugs. The nurse administers which of the following drugs in combination with quinidine that may result in an increased level of the drug? A. Furosemide (Lasix) B. Digoxin (Lanoxin) C. Propranolol (Inderal) D. Triamterene and hydrochlorothiazide (Dyazide) 42. The nurse should administer amiodarone (Cordarone) to treat which of the following arrhythmias? A. Sinus bradycardia B. Bundle branch block C. Ventricular tachycardia D. Junctional rhythm 43. Which of the following is the priority nursing intervention for a client who is receiving adenosine (Adenocard) for supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)? A. Document the presence of peripheral pulses B. Monitor the pulse oximetry C. Assure a patent IV in the antecubital vein D. Prepare for emergency defibrillation 44. A client has been taking Viagra and is now experiencing angina. The physician has prescribed nitroglycerin p.r.n. for the angina. Which of the following should the nurse include in the discharge instructions? A. Viagra should not be used within 24 hours of taking nitroglycerin B. Nitroglycerin and Viagra should be taken at the same time C. Viagra is not effective when used in combination with nitroglycerin D. The effect of nitroglycerin is impaired by concurrent use with Viagra 45. Which of the following adverse reactions should the nurse assess in a 70-year-old adult who is receiving a continuous infusion of lidocaine? A. Hypertension B. Osteoarthritis C. Confusion D. Decreased visual acuity 46. Based on an understanding of beta blockers used for unstable angina, the nurse administers a beta blocker because of which of the following actions? A. To increase myocardial contractility B. To decrease heart rate C. To promote cardiovascular fluid shift D. Coronary artery vasodilation 47. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care for a client taking an ACE inhibitor? A. Monitor the blood pressure closely for 2 hours after the first dose B. Begin with a high dose and gradually decrease the dose C. Administer potassium supplements to the client D. Begin with daily dosing followed by dosing every other day 48. A client’s family member asks the nurse how to know if the client is improving while receiving furosemide (Lasix) for congestive heart failure. The nurse’s response should be based on the understanding that improvement in the client’s condition is characterized by A. diminishing oxygen needs. B. increased thirst. C. weight gain. D. intake greater than output. 49. A client with congestive heart disease returns to the clinic with muscle aching. The physician orders a potassium level, which shows hypokalemia. The drug regimen includes furosemide (Lasix) 80 mg b.i.d. In addition to treatment with a potassium supplement, the nurse administers which of the following prescribed drugs? A. Bumetanide (Bumex) B. Torsemide (Demadex) C. Spironolactone (Aldactone) D. Clonidine (Catapres) 50. The nurse is caring for a client on a heparin infusion when the client expresses concern over a progressively painful headache. Which of the following is the priority nursing action? A. Stop the heparin infusion B. Administer protamine C. Notify the physician D. Administer morphine