Title Respiratory diseases ✅

RESPIRATORY DISEASES 1. What prevents food from going down the trachea? a. glottis b. tongue c. esophagus d. epiglottis 2. If someone had an upper-respiratory infection, where might it be located? a. larynx b. lungs c. sinuses d. bronchioles 3. Which of the following in arterial blood exerts most important control on ventilation under normal conditions pO2 pCO2 pH All are equally important 4. Which of the following changes would most quickly cause an increase in your breathing rate? a. The amount of oxygen in your blood decreases slightly. b. The amount of acid in your blood increases slightly. c. The amount of carbon dioxide in your blood decreases slightly. d. The amount of glucose in your blood increases slightly 5. What is the most important pathway for the respiratory response to systemic arterial PCO2? CO2 activation of the carotid bodies H+ activation of the carotid bodies CO2 activation of the chemosensitive area of the medulla H+ activation of the chemosensitive area of the medulla H+ do not cross the blood-brain barrier. However, CO2 dif uses across the blood-brain barrier and then is converted to H+, which acts on the chemosensitive area and is the major controller of respiration 6. This is a group of preventable and treatable disorders characterized by progressive airflow limitation that is not fully reversible by bronchodilator or anti-inflammatory therapy. A. Asthma B. ARDS C. COPD D. Pneumonia 7. Long-term exposure to which of the following can increase the risk for COPD? A. Airborne chemicals B. Pollutants C. Smoke from cigarette D. All of the above 9. Which of these factors are the most common pathophysiological factors that contribute to asthma? I. Allergenic; II. Hereditary; III. Psychosocial A. I B. I and II C. II and III
D. I, II and III 10. What tends to decrease airway resistance? Asthma Stimulation by sympathetic fibers Treatment with acetylcholine Exhalation to residual volume 11. What tends to increase airway resistance? Stimulation of parasympathetic nerves to the lungs Release of histamine by mast cells Forced expirations All of the above 12. Type I (hypoxemic) respiratory failure is due to Muscular failure to move the air into the lungs Failure of the neurological system to stimulate respiration Failure of the cells to use oxygen in capillaries Failure of the oxygen transport from alveoli to capillaries 13. Your patient is having an asthma attack. Which of the following mechanisms would be contributing to the sensation of dyspnea? A) Increase in the work of breathing due to high airway resistance B) Increase in the work of breathing due to low lung compliance C) Increase in the drive to breathe due to hypoxemia D) All the above 14. Obstructive lung diseases is defined by an FEV1/FVC that is less than 70 to 75 percent of predicted. an FVC that is less than 75 percent of predicted. a maximal midexpiratory flow that is les than 70 to 75 percent of predicted. a total lung capacity that is les than 70 to 75 percent of predicted. 15. Restrictive lung disease is best defined by https://www.sciencedirect.com/topics/medicine-and-dentistry/restrictive-lung-disease A reduced diffusion capacity A reduced forced expiratory flow for 1 second (FEV1) A reduced forced vital capacity (FVC) A reduced total lung capacity (TLC) 16. To evaluate the effectiveness of prescribed therapies for a patient with respiratory failure, which diagnostic test will be most useful to the nurse? Chest x-rays Pulse oximetry (SpO2) Arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis Pulmonary artery pressure monitoring ABG analysis is most useful in this setting because ventilatory failure causes problems with CO2 retention, and ABGs provide information about the PaCO2 and pH. In clinical practice, a pulse oximeter is used to measure SpO2, which represents SaO2 in most of the cases. The other tests also may be done to help in assessing oxygenation or determining the cause of the patient's ventilatory failure. 17. The pulse oximetry for a patient with right lower lobe pneumonia indicates an oxygen saturation of 90%. The patient has rhonchi, a weak cough effort, and complains of fatigue. Which action is best for the nurse to take?
Position the patient on the right side. Place a humidifier in the patient's room. Assist the patient with staged coughing. Schedule a 2-hour rest period for the patient. The patient's assessment indicates that assisted coughing is needed to help remove secretions, which will improve oxygenation. A 2-hour rest period at this time may allow the oxygen saturation to drop further. Humidification will not be helpful unless the secretions can be mobilized. Positioning on the right side may cause a further decrease in oxygen saturation because perfusion will be directed more toward the more poorly ventilated lung. 18. When the nurse is caring for an obese patient with left lower lobe pneumonia, gas exchange will be best when the patient is positioned on the left side. on the right side. in the tripod position. in the high-Fowler's position. The patient should be positioned with the good lung in the dependent position to improve the match between ventilation and perfusion. The obese patient’s abdomen will limit respiratory excursion when sitting in high-Fowlers or tripod positions. 19. Which statement by the nurse when explaining the purpose of positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) to the family members of a patient with ARDS is correct? PEEP will prevent fibrosis of the lung from occurring. PEEP will push more air into the lungs during inhalation. PEEP allows the ventilator to deliver 100% oxygen to the lungs. PEEP prevents the lung air sacs from collapsing during exhalation. By preventing alveolar collapse during expiration, PEEP improves gas exchange and oxygenation. PEEP will not prevent the fibrotic changes that occur with ARDS, push more air into the lungs, or change the fraction of inspired oxygen (FIO2) delivered to the patient. 20. When prone positioning is used in the care of a patient with acute respiratory failure, which information indicates that the positioning is effective? The patient’s SpO2 is at leasts 92%. The patient’s breath rate is at least 20 bpm Endotracheal suctioning results in minimal mucous return.
Sputum and blood cultures show no growth after 24 hours. The purpose of prone positioning is to improve the patients oxygenation as indicated by the PaO2 and SaO2. The other information will be collected but does not indicate whether prone positioning has been ef ective. 21. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) arrives in the emergency department complaining of shortness of breath and dyspnea. Which assessment found by the nurse is most important to report to the health care provider? The patient has bibasilar lung crackles. The patient is sitting in the tripod position. The patient's respiratory rate has decreased from 30 to 10 breaths/min. The patient's pulse oximetry indicates an O2 saturation of 91%. A decrease in respiratory rate in a patient with respiratory distress suggests the onset of fatigue and a high risk for respiratory arrest. Therefore immediate action such as positive pressure ventilation is needed. Patients who are experiencing respiratory distress frequently sit in the tripod position because it decreases the work of breathing. Crackles in the lung bases may be the baseline for a patient with COPD. An oxygen saturation of 91% is common in patients with COPD and will provide adequate gas exchange and tissue oxygenation. 22. The nurse is caring for a 22-year-old patient who came to the emergency department with acute respiratory distress. Which information about the patient requires the most rapid action by the nurse? Respiratory rate is 32 breaths/min. Pattern of breathing is shallow. The patient's SpO2 is 85 mm Hg. The patient's PCO2 is 32 mm Hg. The PaO2 indicates severe hypoxemia and respiratory failure. Rapid action is needed to prevent further deterioration of the patient. Although the shallow breathing, rapid respiratory rate, and low PaCO2 also need to be addressed, the most urgent problem is the patient's poor oxygenation. 23. Which of the following arterial blood gas results would indicate COPD? pH 7.4, PaCO2 40 mm Hg, PaO2 96, HCO3 24 mEq, SaO2 94% pH 7.35, PaCO2 50 mm Hg, PaO2 70 mm Hg, HCO3 30 mEq, SaO2 90% ph 7.49, PaCO2 32 mm Hg, PaO2 75 mm Hg, HCO3 22 mEq, SaO2 90% pH 7.29, PCO2 28 mm Hg, PaO2 97 mm Hg, HCO3 16 mEq, SaO2 94% 24. A male client admitted to an acute care facility with hypoxia is receiving supplemental oxygen, 2 L/minute via nasal cannula. The client’s history includes chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and coronary artery disease. Because of these history findings, the nurse closely monitors the oxygen flow and the client’s respiratory status. Which complication may arise if the client receives a high oxygen concentration? Apnea Anginal pain Respiratory alkalosis Metabolic acidosis Hypoxia is the main breathing stimulus for a client with COPD. Excessive oxygen administration may lead to apnea by removing that stimulus. Anginal pain results from a reduced myocardial oxygen supply. A client with COPD may have anginal pain from generalized vasoconstriction secondary to hypoxia; however, administering oxygen at any concentration dilates blood vessels, easing anginal pain. 25. A patient is placed in the recovery area after a bronchoscopy and biopsy. Which of the following signs should be reported immediately to the physician? Dry cough Hematuria Bronchospasm Blood-streaked sputum If a biopsy was performed during a bronchoscopy, blood-streaked sputum is expected for several hours. Frank