Content text test (22).docx
PRACTICE TEST 22 Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1. A. imagined B. predicted C. described D. installed Question 2. A. limit B. rivalry C. shrine D. climate Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3. A. teenager B. dynamite C. contestant D. thunderstorm Question 4. A. despite B. although C. because D. therefore Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 5. Nick: “I think you should try this app to study English. It's so helpful and engaging.” Dan: “..........” A. Are you excited about the app? B. That sounds amazing! I'll have to check it out. C. Thank you for your help. D. It’s nice of you to say so. Question 6. .......... to your pen pal yet? ~ Not yet. I’m too busy. A. Do you write B. Did you write C. Are you writing D. Have you written Question 7. There are many websites and forums ........ you can look for advice on a variety of topics. A. where B. which C. who D. that Question 8. Natural disasters can leave people .............., forcing them to live in shelters or on the streets. A. homeland B. homesick C. homeless D. homework Question 9. There are many websites and forums .............. you can look for advice on a variety of topics. A. where B. which C. who D. that Question 10. You will feel healthier ............ you take more exercise. A. so that B. although C. if D. unless Question 11. Monica is very .............. on travelling – getting to know new places and new people. A. interested B. keen C. fond D. good Question 12. We are going to see a horror film .............. the cinema this evening. A. at B. on C. to D. for Read the following announcement and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option that best fits each numbered blank from 13 to 16. SAFETY WARNING FOR HIKING TRAIL Before going on the hiking trail, please be aware of these safety warnings: • Do not (13) ........... from the marked path to avoid getting lost. • Always (14) ........... your surroundings for any dangerous animals. • If you need help, find (15) ............ ranger nearby. • Stay (16) ............ and keep an eye out for any sudden weather changes. Question 13. A. wander B. run C. climb D. play Question 14. A. touch B. watch C. throw D. call
Question 15. A. a B. the C. some D. any Question 16. A. scared B. alert C. tired D. sleepy Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 17 to 18. Question 17. Put the sentences (a-c) in the correct order, then fill in the blank to make a logical text. Getting enough sleep is crucial for your overall health. ............... a. Lack of sleep can lead to various health problems, including obesity and heart disease. b. It also helps improve your memory and concentration. c. Additionally, good sleep can boost your immune system and help you fight off illnesses. A. c - a - b B. b - a - c C. a - c - b D. b - c - a Question 18. Choose the sentence that most appropriately ends the text (in Question 17). A. Therefore, it’s important to establish a regular sleep schedule. B. You should aim to get at least 7-8 hours of sleep each night. C. Don’t forget that good sleep habits contribute to a healthy lifestyle. D. A good night’s sleep is just as important as a healthy diet and exercise. Read the following announcement and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option that best fits each numbered blank from 19 to 24. Many people are worried about the rise in average temperature around the world. (19) ...... it be too hot in fifty or a hundred years’ time for people to live on the Earth? If so, can we move to another planet? Science fiction films suggest this is quite easy. People will live in large plastic bubbles the size of a city, (20) ...... there will be air to breathe. But there is a big problem with that idea. First, we need to find a planet which has the same sort of average temperature as the Earth today, and it is not possible to find a planet (21) ...... that in our solar system. Mercury and Venus are (22) ...... hot for us. Mars has a good daytime temperature in certain places, but most of the planet is too cold. The large outer planets like Saturn and Jupiter do not have any hard ground for people to live on. Perhaps we can find a good planet outside our solar system. (23) ......., the nearest one is a very long way away, and we need to see a lot of scientific advances in space travel to ever be able to (24) ....... there. Question 19. A. Will B. Does C. May D. Can Question 20. A. when B. where C. that D. which Question 21. A. as B. such C. like D. same Question 22. A. enough B. much C. so D. too Question 23. A. Suddenly B. Unfortunately C. Immediately D. Badly Question 24. A. get B. come C. drive D. ride Read the following announcement and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the original sentence in each of the following questions. Question 25. Tom conducted research to find out how much food his friends were throwing away. A. Tom's research was about wasting food at his friends' home. B. Tom did research on how to throw away food without harming the environment C. Tom's friends carried out research because he was throwing away too much food. D. Tom carried out a study on his friends' food-wasting habit. Question 26. I cannot run a marathon if I don't train very hard. A. I cannot run a marathon although I train very B. I train very hard, and I can run a marathon now.
hard. C. Unless I train very hard, I cannot run a marathon. D. I will train very hard unless I can run a marathon. Read the following announcement and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is made from the given cues in each of the following questions. Question 27. staff / discuss / what / do / case / emergency. A. The staff is discussing what is doing in the case of emergency. B. The staff were discussing what they did in case of emergency. C. The staff are discussing what to do in case of emergency. D. The staff was discussing what to do in the case of emergency. Question 28. Many teenagers / comfort / in clothing / matter / more / style. A. For many teenagers, comfort in clothing matters more than style. B. Many teenagers, comfort in clothing matter more than style. C. For many teenagers, comfort in clothing matters more style. D. For many teenagers, comfort and clothing matters more than style. Read the following sign or notice and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 29. What does the sign say? A. The dangerous electric fence can’t touch you. B. You must keep away from the electric fence. C. You don’t have to touch the electric fence. D. It is dangerous to have an electric fence. Question 30. What does the notice say? A. Books should be left on the tables instead of the shelves. B. You can leave books either on the shelves or on the tables. C. You need to put the books both on the table and the shelves. D. After you finish reading, you have to put the books back on the shelves. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 36. Why Do They Speak English in Australia and New Zealand? Australia and New Zealand are on the opposite side of the planet to England. So what could possibly explain why most of the people in those two countries speak English? In 1768, an Englishman called James Cook set sail for the island of Tahiti with secret instructions from the British government to try to find The Great Southern Land. People claimed that they had visited it, but there was doubt whether it really existed. In 1769, Cook left the island of Tahiti in the South Pacific to set sail for New Zealand and, after 2,500 miles, he arrived at what is now the North Island. He found that people called Maoris lived there. In fact, they had
been there for about 800 years. In the years which followed, many British people came to the country and, in 1840, the Maoris agreed to become part of the British Empire. Cook sailed from New Zealand in March 1770 and, one month later, he arrived at the west coast of the island which would become known as Australia, or ‘Southern Land’ in Latin. He explored large parts of the coast before sailing back to Britain. People who the British called Aborigines had lived in the country for many years – in this case, more than 50,000 years. Just 18 years later, the British government decided to send their criminals to Australia because the prisons in Britain had too many people in them. In the next 80 years, more than 160,000 criminals were sent, becoming the main population of the country. They spoke English; therefore, the language of the country became English. Question 31. From the text, we know that Cook ............ A. visited at least three islands on his journey B. spoke the Maori language C. died during this journey D. gave the name ‘Australia’ to the second new place Question 32. Which of the following best answers the question in the title? A. Cook, the first British person to visit the countries, spoke English. B. Many people who spoke English went to live in each country after Cook’s visit. C. A large number of English-speaking prisoners were sent to both countries. D. The Maoris and the Aborigines agreed to learn English. Question 33. Why did the British government send criminals to Australia? A. To punish them more severely B. To establish a new colony C. To explore the land further D. Because British prisons were overcrowded Question 34. How did the arrival of British settlers affect the language spoken in Australia? A. It introduced multiple languages B. It led to the dominance of the English language C. It had no impact on the local languages D. It caused the Aborigines to stop speaking their language Question 35. What can we infer about the relationship between the British and the indigenous peoples of Australia and New Zealand? A. It was peaceful and cooperative B. It was marked by conflict and colonization C. The British had no interest in the local cultures D. The Indigenous peoples willingly gave up their land Question 36. What is the OPPOSITE of “explored” as used in the context of the passage? A. discovered B. surveyed C. ignored D. investigated Four phrases/sentences have been removed from the text below. For each question, mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option that fits each of the numbered blanks from 37 to 40 the most. A. because it can provide power to many homes B. Wind farms can take up large areas of land C. This makes it a sustainable energy source D. with the wind and create electricity Wind energy is another form of renewable energy that is growing in use worldwide. Wind turbines use the power of the wind to generate electricity. The blades turn (37) ........ They are usually installed in places with