Content text ĐỀ THI HSG ANH 9 KHÁNH HOÀ 2022 2023.docx
1 PHÒNG GD&ĐT YÊN KHÁNH ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 9 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH Năm học 2022-2023 (Thời gian làm bài 150 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề) Đề thi gồm 4 phần, trong 9 trang SECTION A: LISTENING (5.0 points) Hướng dẫn thí sinh: - Phần thi nghe gồm 3 bài. Thí sinh được nghe mỗi bài 2 lần liên tiếp. - Thí sinh đọc kĩ yêu cầu của từng bài trước khi nghe. - Hướng dẫn chi tiết bằng Tiếng Anh đã có trong đĩa nghe. Bắt đầu và kết thúc bài nghe có tín hiệu nhạc. Part I: You will hear people talking in eight different situations. For question 1 - 8, choose the best answer A, B, C or D. (1.6 points) 1. When is the man’s appointment? A. Wednesday B. Thursday C. Friday D. Tuesday 2. Which is the aunt’s postcard? A. a pretty village right by the sea B. big trees C. a pretty village behind the tall trees D. a pretty village on the hills 3. What time will the plane to Milan leave? A. 01:00 B. 07:15 C. 08:15 D. 06:15 4. Which present has the girl bought her mother? A. earrings B. music CD C. pen D. notebook 5. What time will the pie be ready? A. four fifteen B. five o’clock C. twenty past five D. fifty past four 6. What time is the swimming lesson today? A. half past four B. fifteen to five C. fifteen past five D.four thirty 7. Which subject does the boy like best? A. information technology B. geography C. sports D. design 8. Which T-shirt does the boy decide to buy? A. a short-sleeved T-shirt with round neck B. a V-neck black T-shirt C. a long-sleeved T-shirt D. a sleeveless white T-shirt. Part II: Listen to the recording twice. Do some tasks as directed.
2 Complete the notes below. Write one word or a number for each answer. (2.0 points) Revision Mote Example * Problem with: the brochure sample * Company name: (9) …………………… Hotel Chains * Letters of (10) …… ……………… should be bigger. * The (11) ……… …………… should be removed. * Change the description under the top photo to (12) ……… …………… * Use the picture with (13) ……… …………… of the hotel. * The (14) …… ……………… should be in red print. * Translate into (15) ……… …………… * Deadline: by the end of (16) ……… …………… * Address: No. 9 Green Drive, (17) …… ……………… , NY21300 * Telephone number: (18) …………………… Part III: Listen to a science teacher talking about the life of Isaac Newton. Then for each of the questions 19-25 choose the best answer A, B or C, as in the example. (1,4 points) 19. Newton was born in …. A. 1462. B. 1624. C. 1642. 20. When he first went to university, Newton studied …………. A. Law. B. Mathematics. C. Science. 21. The speaker says that Newton’s most famous discovery …………. A. light. B. mechanics. C. gravity. 22. Newton started thinking about gravity when he saw …… A. an apple falls off a tree. B. a tree falling over. C. the moon moving through the sky. 23. Newton died in … A. Woolsthorpe. B. Cambridge. C. London. 24. What does the speaker say about Einstein? A. He worked with Newton. B. Newton improved his theories. C. He lived more than 250 years after Newton 25. When did Newton leave Cambridge? A. 1696 B. 1661 C. 1727 SECTION B: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (2.0 points)
3 Part I. Choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer questions. Write your answers in the box provided. (1.0 point) 1. _________ the phone rang later that night did Anna remember the appointment A. Just before B. Not until C. Only D. No sooner 2. Looking down at the coral reef, we saw __________of tiny, multi-coloured fish. A. teams B. flocks C. schools D. swarms 3. She insisted that the reporter ______her as his source of information. A. didn’t mention B. doesn’t mention C. hadn’t mentioned D. not mention 4. You will have to ________ your holiday if you are too ill to travel. A. put out B. put off C. put down D. put up 5. She had butterflies in her ________ before the interview. A. face B. heart C. palms D. stomach 6. There was hardly _________ money left in my bank account. A. more B. no C. some D. any 7. Give me your telephone number _________ I need your help. A. in case B. so that C. unless D. whether 8. Do you like the language center _________in the Women’s Magazine? A. advertiser B. advertised C. advertising D. advertisement 9. Thomas has a garden which is _______ mine. A. double as large B. semi-larger than C. twice as large as D. as two-time as large 10. ~ A: “_________” ~ B: “Well, what I mean is, I think it’s a good idea.” A. Do you mean it? B. What’s the meaning of this word? C. Is it what you mean? D. I don't get what you mean. Part II. Use the correct form of the words in brackets. Write your answers in the box provided. (1.0 point) RUNNING FOR HEALTH If you want to improve your overall level of fitness, running is one of the best sports to choose. It can increase the strength of your bones, it is good for your heart, and it can help with weight (1. LOSE)_______________ . You will soon begin to see a significant (2. IMPROVE)_______________ in your general health and if you are the sort of person who enjoys a challenge, then you could consider making the decision to run a marathon-a race of (3. APPROXIMATE) ________________ 42 kilometres. (4. EXPERIENCE) _________________ runners and sports instructors say you should make a point of having a physical (5. CHECK) __________________ with your doctor before you start training. Another (6. RECOMMEND) _________________ is that anyone who has an old back, knee or ankle injury should take extra care. You should never use running shoes which hurt your feet or in which you feel (7.
4 COMFORT) _________________ after a long run. It is a good idea to start by running slowly for about twenty minutes three times a week and (8. GRADUAL) ___________________ increase the number of kilometres you run. You should find running long (9. DISTANT) _________________ gets progressively easier, and after a time, you may feel that even a marathon will be (10. POSSIBILITY)__________________! SECTION C: READING (5.0 points) Part I. Read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each space. Put a circle on the letter indicating the correct answer. Write your answers in the boxes provided. (1,0 point). Reality television is a genre of television programming which, it is claimed, presents unscripted dramatic or humorous situations, documents (1)___ events, and features ordinary people rather than professional actors. It could be described as a form of artificial or "heightened" documentary. (2) ___ the genre has existed in some form or another since the (3) ___ years of television, the current explosion of popularity dates from (4) ___ 2000. Reality television (5) ___ a wide range of television programming formats, from game or quiz shows which resemble the frantic, often demeaning programmes (6) ____ in Japan in the 1980s and 1990s (a modern example is Gaki no tsukai), to surveillance- or voyeurism-focused productions (7) ___ Big Brother. Critics say that the (8) ___ "reality television" is somewhat of a misnomer and that such shows frequently portray a modified and highly influenced form of reality, (9) ___ participants put in exotic locations or abnormal situations, sometimes coached to act in (10) ___ ways by off-screen handlers, and with events on screen manipulated through editing and other post-production techniques. 1. A. factual B. actual C. real D. interesting 2. A. Because B. If C. Despite D. Although 3. A. early B. earliest C. earlier D. more early 4. A. in B. during C. around D. with 5. A. covers B. spreads C. stretches D. expands 6. A.which produced B. produced C. which was produced D. producing 7. A. such B. such as C. as D. from 8. A. saying B. words C. term D. definition 9. A. for B. into C. with D. with 10. A. other B. special C. own D. certain Part II. Read the passage and answer the questions. Write your answers in the boxes provided. (2,0 points) Madison Square Garden, a world-famous sporting venue in New York City, has actually been a series of buildings in varied locations rather than a single building in one spot. In 1873, P.T. Barnum built