Title RECALLS 1 - NP4 - SC ✅

A. Via a transport stretcher, pushed from the feet end so the patient’s feet go first B. Via a transport stretcher, pushed from the head end so the patient’s head go first C. Via a transport stretcher, pushed from the feet end so the patient’s head go first D. Via a transport stretcher, pushed from the head end so the patient’s feet go first 13. Nurse July knows that as a scrub person, he should drape the unsterile table under the following techniques EXCEPT: A. Unfolding towards the far side first to make sure the whole table will be covered. B. Placing the drape over the unsterile surface nearest himself first and carefully completing the coverage of the far side. C. Unfolding toward self first to protect the gown when working with a folded drape. D. The scrub person stands back from the unsterile table when draping it to avoid leaning over an unsterile area. 14. Before the closure of the incision, the first closing count is performed which consists of three areas. This specific area is done together by the scrub person and the circulating nurse in which they count all items on the Mayo stand and instrument table. The surgeon and assistant may be suturing the wound while this count is in process. A. Field Count B. Table Count C. Floor Count D. Mayo Count 15. Nurse July knows that the ideal position for a client who has had laparotomy is A. Low fowler’s B. Right side lying C. Left side lying D. Flat on bed Situation: Gordon, a 60 year old cook was admitted in the Emergency Department (ED) because of burn wounds sustained when the kitchen where he is working burned down due to a gas tank explosion. 16. The physician diagnosed deep partial thickness on the anterior head and neck, whole anterior truck and anterior upper right and left limbs. If the physician will use the rile of Nine, which of the following is the correct estimate of the surface area burned of the patient’s trunk? A. 18% B. 36%? C. 4.5% D. 9.0% 17. The best describes the characteristics of Gordon’s burn wounds, which of the following will the admitting nurse NOT consider? A. The wound appears pale and waxy with blisters looking like flat dry tissue paper B. The burn wounds may be less painful than the partial thickness burn wound C. Wound will not heal by re-epithelialization D. Skin blanches with pressure 18. Considering the burn wounds on the face, which of the following will the nurse expect to be done immediately on Gordon to maintain alveolar oxygen exchange? A. Oral Suctioning B. Tracheostomy C. Intubation D. Fluid resuscitation 19. Which nursing actions should the nurse do for the client? I. Assess airway patency. II. Administer oxygen, as prescribed. III. Keep the patient warm. IV. Place a cooling blanket. V. Prepare to give oral pain medication, as prescribed. A. I, II, III, V B. I, II, IV C. I, II, III D. I, II, III, IV, V 20. Complete blood count results showed an elevated hematocrit. Then nurse understand that this is the result of ________? A. Increase fluid volume in the interstitial compartment B. Massive destruction of erythrocytes C. Increased microvascular permeability D. Fluids shifts from the intravascular compartment Situation: Diego, 5 years old, was admitted because of persistent low grade fever, pallor, fatigue, petechiae and bleeding from the oral mucous membrane. The attending physician suspects acute Lymphocytic Leukemia. 21. Diego was scheduled for bone marrow aspiration. As his nurse, you are aware that in children the site preferred is the iliac crest because it_______: A. Can easily be penetrated B. Is less painful C. Yields more bone marrow D. Heals faster 22. Diego is for bone marrow aspiration. The physician said he will aspirate bone marrow through the iliac crest posterior. Which of the following position is MOST appropriate? A. Sim’s B. Supine C. Lateral D. Prone 23. To confirm the diagnosis of the physician, which of the following will establish an Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia diagnosis? A. Presence of immature thrombocytes B. Over production of granulocytes C. Presence of more than 25% blast cells D. A WBC count of 50,00 cells/mm 24. During the first hour post bone marrow aspiration, which of the following is a PRIORITY activity? A. Apply pressure dressing B. Monitor body temperature C. Maintain on complete bed rest D. Observe the dressing for bleeding 25. Diego received blood transfusion because of severe anemia, immediately after the strat of transfusion, he cried and complained of headache. Which of the following is your PRIORITY action? A. Refer to the physician B. Take vital signs C. Discontinue the transfusion D. Assess for dyspnea Situation: Gantt, 67 years old business man with symptoms of post-void urinary dribbling, decreased forced of urinary stream, inability to empty the bladder completely, and difficulty in initiating urination. After a series of diagnostic tests, he was diagnosed of benign Prostatic Hypertrophy. 26. While you were taking his history, Gantt asks you what could be the cause of these embarrassing symptoms. Your BEST response would be “the symptoms you are experiencing can be due to_______”. A. Urinary tract infection” B. Stones in your urinary bladder” C. Pressure of your prostate on your bladder and around your urethra: D. Strictures in your ureters and urethra” 27. The physician ordered a number of diagnostic tests for Gantt. Which of the following tests is capable of determining the size of the prostate and differentiate benign prostatic hypertrophy (BHP) from prostate cancer? A. Intravenous pyelography B. Transrectal ultrasound C. Cystouroscopy D. Prostate specific antigen 28. As his nurse, you plan to control urinary retention and incontinence through which of the following strategies? 1. Avoid alcohol 2. Encourage fluid intake 3. Follow a timed voiding schedule 4. Administer antihistamines, as prescribed. 2 | Page
A. 1 and 2 B. 1, 2 and 3 C. 1,2,3 and 4 D. All except 2 29. While reviewing his records, you remember the procedure “transurethral resection of the prostate.” Which of the following is true about TURP? A. Uses scope into the ureter to excise prostatic tissue. B. Bleeding is common following TURP C. A and B D. None of the above 30. You understand that urinary tract infection can occur due to retention of urine in the bladder and subsequent backup or reflux into the ureters and kidneys. Thus, you plan to teach Gantt and his family signs and symptoms of urinary tract infection which include the following EXCEPT. A. Hematuria B. Cloudy urine C. Sweet smelling urine D. Fever Situation: Cyrin, a 50-year-old dressmaker, was diagnosed with myasthenia gravis. For two years, she has been on remission. She takes an anticholinesterase medication which is Pyridostigmine (Mestinon) 60 mg PO every 4 hours. During the past month, Cyrin decreased the dose of her medication without informing her physician because she was feeling so good. An hour ago, Mylene was admitted in the hospital for treatment for exacerbation of myasthenia gravis. Upon admission, she complains of severe weakness with problems in mobility. She is dyspneic, with difficulty to swallow and with ptosis of both eyes. 31. The nurse who admitted the client considers which of the following as a correct description of myasthenia gravis? Myasthenia gravis is_________? A. A degenerative neurologic disease with lower motor neuron involvement B. An autoimmune neuromuscular disorder C. An acute inflammatory demyelinating disorder of the peripheral nervous system D. A viral infection affecting the cranial nerves specifically the oculomotor nerve 32. Which of the following interventions will the nurse not implement for a patient with myasthenia gravis? A. Monitor respiratory status. B. Encourage client to sit up when eating. C. Plan short activities that coincide with times that the patient is awake. D. Administer anticholinesterase medications, as prescribed. 33. Which of the following will the nurse report as a manifestation of cholinergic crisis due to over dosage of Pyridostigmine (Mestinon)? A. Increase heart rate B. Diarrhea C. Decreased sweeting D. Dry mouth 34. Due to impaired swallowing, which of the following interventions will the nurse implemented to promote effectiveness of pyridostigmine (Mestinon)? A. Administer the drug 30 minutes before meals B. Allow patient to take the drug with a glass of fruit juice C. Have patient take the drug after meals D. Dissolve drug in a glass of water 35. Which of the following documentation of the nurse will provide information regarding the effectiveness of pyridostigmine (Mestinon)? A. Vital signs of the client before and after an activity B. Frequency of complaints of pain during movement C. Changes in abilities to comprehend D. Time when fatigue occurs in relation to activities Situation: Alexa, a 30-year-old computer engineer, went to the emergency department with complaints of gnawing pain and burning sensation in the midepigastrium. The physician’s initial diagnosis is peptic ulcer disease. 36. As a nurse, you know that there are few things that differentiate gastric ulcers from duodenal ulcers. Which among the choices correctly differentiates the two? A. Pain in gastric ulcer is aggravated by eating, while pain in duodenal ulcer is relieved by eating. B. Gastric ulcer is known as the executive ulcer. C. Pain in gastric ulcer usually radiates in the right side of the abdomen. D. Melena is more common in gastric ulcers. 37. Which among the following can detect H. pylori infection? 1. Biopsy 2. Stool antigen test 3. Urea breath test 4. Endoscopy A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 C. 1, 2 and 3 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 38. Which among the following can detect H. pylori infection? 1. Biopsy 2. Stool antigen test 3. Urea breath test 4. Endoscopy A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 C. 1, 2 and 3 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 39. Alexa tested positive for H. pylori infection. The physician prescribed Metronidazole. What is the most important health teaching that the nurse can provide Alexa? A. Administer with meals. B. Administer before meals. C. Avoid drinking alcohol. D. Drink an adequate amount of fluids to avoid constipation. 40. The most life-threatening complication of PUD is: A. Hemorrhage B. Severe weight loss C. Septic shock D. Heart attack Situation: Nurse Mina is assigned at the TB-DOTS Clinic of Comembo, Makati. A couple of patients went to the clinic one Friday morning. 41. How would Nurse Mina understand Patient Ara's statement "I experience numbness and tingling in my arms and legs" given that she has been taking Isoniazid (INH) for the past two months already? A. Raynaud’s disease B. Hypercalcemia C. Peripheral neuritis D. Impaired peripheral circulation 42. Nurse Mina should educate the patient who will be taking Isoniazid all of the following EXCEPT: A. Avoid taking alcohol. B. Report immediately to the physician any signs of jaundice C. Increase intake of Swiss cheese for good absorption of Isoniazid D. Increase intake of pyridoxine. 43. Nurse Mina should intervene when the student nurse tells the patient taking rifampin (Rifadin) that: A. It can cause orange discoloration of secretions B. Antacids can be taken at least 1 hour before medication, if prescribed. C. The medication can be administered on an empty stomach. D. The patient can double dose if one dose is forgotten. 44. Nurse Mina knows that all of the listed patients below, except for one, have characteristics that increase their risk of noncompliance with the TB medication regimen: A. Patient A, 25-year-old male, who is diagnosed with schizophrenia B. Patient B, 50-year-old female, a government employee C. Patient C, 44-year-old male, wheelchair-bound for three years after having both legs amputated 3 | Page