Title RECALLS 6 (NP2) - STUDENT COPY ✅

RECALLS EXAMINATION 6 NURSING PRACTICE II CARE OF HEALTHY / AT RISK MOTHER AND CHILD MAY 2025 Philippine Nurse Licensure Examination Review GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS: 1. This test questionnaire contains 100 test questions 2. Shade only one (1) box for each question on your answer sheets. Two or more boxes shaded will invalid your answer. 3. AVOID ERASURES. 4. Detach one (1) answer sheet from the bottom of your Examinee ID/Answer Sheet Set. 5. Write the subject title “NURSING PRACTICE II” on the box provided Situation. As a community health nurse, it is essential to classify sick infants and children through the use of IMCI. 1. Fast breathing is classified in a child aged 2 months to 12 months old if the respiratory rate is: A. 30 breaths per minute or more B. 40 breaths per minute or more C. 50 breaths per minute or more D. 60 breaths per minute or more 2. What is the recommended drug of choice for treatment of pneumonia in children? A. Cotrimoxazole B. Amoxicillin C. Ciprofloxacin D. Azithromycin 3. A 4-year-old child presents with pus discharge from the ear for 16 days. What is the correct treatment? A. Prescribe oral antibiotics for 5 days. B. Refer urgently to the hospital for acute ear infection C. Give paracetamol for pain. D. Perform dry wicking and give quinolone ear drops for 14 days. 4. A child with diarrhea has sunken eyes, is restless, and has a skin pinch that goes back slowly. What is the best management? A. Start rehydration using Plan B. B. Begin intravenous fluids and refer urgently C. Provide Plan A with ORS and food-based fluids at home D. Administer zinc and antibiotics immediately 5. Which of the following is the appropriate management for a child living in a high-malaria risk community with fever, stiff neck, and positive malaria test? A. Give one dose of Paracetamol in clinic for high fever. B. Administer rectal diazepam and observe for 24 hours. C. Treat with oral antimalarial and send home with follow-up in 3 days if fever persists. D. Administer artesunate and oral antibiotics, then refer urgently. Situation. Understanding the menstrual cycle is necessary to fully grasp the concept of fertilization. 6. What hormone surges to trigger ovulation around the midpoint of the menstrual cycle? A. Estrogen B. Progesterone C. Luteinizing hormone D. Follicle-stimulating hormone 7. A nurse assesses a patient who reports changing two pads in an hour for the past three menstrual cycles. The nurse knows this condition is termed: A. Menometrorrhagia B. Menorrhagia C. Metrorrhagia D. Polymenorrhea 8. If progesterone levels remain elevated at the end of the luteal phase, what does this indicate? A. Pregnancy has likely occurred. B. Fertilization did not occur, and menstruation will follow. C. Estrogen levels are insufficient. D. Ovulation did not occur. 9. Which hormone is primarily responsible for preparing the endometrium for implantation during the luteal phase? A. FSH B. LH C. Estrogen D. Progesterone 10. What is considered as normal blood loss in a menstrual cycle? A. 10-40 mL B. 40-70 mL C. 80-110 mL D. 110-140 mL Situation. Early detection and prompt treatment is essential for a better prognosis. 11. Nurse IU teaches Yoona, a 21-year-old college student, how to perform BSE. Which statement by Yoona indicates a need for further teaching? A. BSE should be done annually beginning at the age of 20. B. BSE is important for detecting changes in the breast tissue. C. BSE can be performed while lying down or in front of a mirror. D. BSE should be done even if there is no family history of breast cancer. 12. Which of the following is the most appropriate time for Yoona to perform her BSE? A. 3 days after menstruation B. A week after menstruation C. On the first day of menstruation D. Any day during menstruation 13. All but one are recommended to have an annual Pap smear. A. A 21-year-old client who practices polygamy B. A 30-year-old client with history of HPV infection C. A 25-year-old client who has 2 consecutive negative smears D. A 29-year-old client who smokes 1 pack of cigarette a day 14. Which of the following should be avoided before a Pap smear to ensure accurate results? A. Sexual intercourse within 24-48 hours of the test 1 | Page

32. The patient is on Magnesium Sulfate therapy. Which assessment finding suggests magnesium toxicity? A. Deep tendon reflexes +3 B. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute C. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg D. Urine output of 40 mL/hr 133. Which laboratory result would cause the nurse to question continuing the administration of MgSO4? A. Serum magnesium level of 3.5 mEq/L B. Serum potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L C. Serum calcium level of 9.2 mg/dL D. Serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L 34. Upon assessment, the patient who is on magnesium sulfate therapy develops respiratory depression. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer? A. Naloxone B. Digoxin C. Hydralazine D. Calcium gluconate 35. Seungkwan is educating the postpartum patient recovering from eclampsia. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? A. “I will monitor my blood pressure regularly.” B. “I should avoid high-sodium foods to help manage my blood pressure.” C. “I don’t need to worry about seizures anymore since I’ve delivered.” D. “I will report severe headaches or blurred vision immediately.” Situation. A pregnant patient at 32 weeks presents with signs of PIH. 36. Which of the following is a hallmark feature of gestational hypertension? A. Proteinuria of 1+ B. Edema in the lower extremities C. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg or higher after the 20th week AOG D. Presence of visual disturbances 37. Which finding is most concerning in a 32-week pregnant patient diagnosed with severe pre-eclampsia? A. Blood pressure of 160/110 mmHg B. Epigastric pain C. Proteinuria +3 D. Weight gain of 1 lb. in one week 38. A nurse is teaching a patient with mild pre-eclampsia about dietary management. Which statement indicates a need for further teaching? A. “I will have my salt intake at 2-3 grams per day.” B. “I need to avoid eating any salt-containing foods to avoid swelling.” C. “I should monitor my weight gain weekly.” D. “I will include fruits and vegetables in my meals.” 39. A patient with gestational hypertension is being educated about her condition. Which statement by the patient indicates correct understanding? A. “This condition will resolve completely after delivery.” B. “I need to avoid all salt in my diet.” C. “Protein in my urine confirms my diagnosis.” D. “I should stay active and avoid resting during the day.” 40. A patient with severe pre-eclampsia is receiving Magnesium Sulfate therapy. Which of the following is the best indicator that the therapy is effective? A. Blood pressure decreases to 130/80 mmHg B. The patient reports no more epigastric pain C. Deep tendon reflexes are absent D. The absence of seizures is observed Situation. FHR monitoring is an essential task of a nurse. 41. The nurse notes late decelerations on a fetal heart rate monitor. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention? A. Administer an oxytocin bolus. B. Place the patient in a lateral position. C. Increase the intravenous oxytocin drip rate. D. Document the findings. 42. A nurse observes variable decelerations in the fetal heart rate. Which of the following is the most likely cause? A. Fetal movement B. Uteroplacental insufficiency C. Fetal cord compression D. Fetal head compression 43. A patient receiving oxytocin for labor induction shows late decelerations on the FHR monitor. What is the nurse's initial action? A. Stop the oxytocin infusion. B. Position the patient in a lateral position. C. Provide supplemental oxygen. D. Notify physician. 44. The nurse is caring for a laboring patient with recurrent variable decelerations. What position is most effective in relieving cord compression? A. Semi-Fowler’s B. Trendelenburg C. Lithotomy D. Prone 45. A nurse observes early decelerations in the fetal heart rate during the second stage of labor. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention? A. Administer oxygen via face mask. B. Reposition the patient to the left lateral position. C. Monitor closely and document the findings. D. Increase the oxytocin drip rate. Situation: Nurse Lumi is educating a postpartum mother about the concept of lochia and puerperium. 46. The postpartum patient at Day 8 is experiencing pinkish-brown vaginal discharge. What is the most likely explanation for this finding? A. Postpartum hemorrhage B. Lochia Rubra C. Lochia Serosa D. Lochia Alba 47. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? A. "I should expect to see lochia for up to 6 weeks after delivery." B. "Lochia should be a yellowish color after the first few days." C. "The color of lochia should progress from red to pink to white." D. "If the lochia reverses in color, I should contact my doctor." 48. A postpartum patient undergoes a cesarean delivery. What is the expected lochia pattern for this patient? A. Lochia Rubra will be absent. B. Lochia will follow the same pattern as a vaginal delivery. C. Lochia will be significantly reduced in quantity. D. Lochia will last longer than 6 weeks. 49. A 28-year-old primiparous woman, 2 days postpartum, is exhibiting passive behavior, expressing fatigue and stating, "I can't seem to do anything right." Which phase of puerperium is most likely being exhibited? A. Taking-in phase B. Taking-hold phase C. Letting-go phase D. Giving-up phase 50. Immediately after placental delivery, where should the nurse palpate the uterine fundus? A. Level of umbilicus B. Halfway between umbilicus and symphysis pubis C. Level of xiphoid process 3 | Page