Title WORKBOOK - ERDN (KEY) ✅

COMPREHENSIVE PHASE WORKBOOK ERDN NOVEMBER 2025 Philippine Nurse Licensure Examination Review 1. The following are true regarding primary survey except: A. Initial and rapid assessment B. Observation and estimation C. ABC and LOC checking D. Glasgow coma Scale 2. Which of the following is considered a secondary assessment? A. Nursing history taking B. LOC assessment C. General impression of the patient D. Checking for pulses 3. The nurse teaches a group of first-aiders how to control bleeding. The following maybe used to stop bleeding except: A. Tying a tourniquet on the supplying artery B. Pressing the supplying artery C. Elevating the site above heart level D. Packing the affected site with pressure dressings 4. In managing for clients with sucking chest wounds, the nurse teaches the first aiders to do which of the following when responding outside the hospital? A. Tape an occlusive dressing to the wound B. Cut a plastic and tape three edges around the wound C. Seal the wound with a plastic taped on all edges D. Close the wound with patient’s hands 5. A client was rushed in to the hospital with multiple thoraco-abdominal stab wounds. The nurse is aware that tension pneumothorax has occurred if which of the following is noted in the client? A. A deviated trachea to the unaffected side B. Absent breath sound on the affected side C. Diminished lung expansion on the affected side D. A sucking chest wound 6. A type of traumatic chest injury that may result to paradoxical chest wall movement A. Rib cage fracture B. Flail chest C. Open pneumothorax D. Tension pneumothorax 7. When preserving an amputated part for repair in the hospital the nurse must do the following except: A. Cover the amputated part with clean moist gauze or cloth B. Place the covered amputated part in a clear plastic C. Put the amputated part in ice D. Label the specimen with the date, time and which part was retrieved 8. The nurse is instructing a group of first-aiders about poisoning first-aid management. The nurse teaches them that goal of first aid care for clients who ingested poison is: A. Place the client in a left lateral position B. Minimize absorption C. Promote expulsion thru feces D. Establish gastric lavage 9. When caring for a client who has been poisoned, the nurse should position the patient initially by: A. Left lateral B. Right lateral C. Trendelenburg D. Modified Trendelenburg 10. The most preferred treatment for ingested poison in the emergency department is: A. Syrup of Ipecac to induce vomiting on all poisoning cases B. Toxicologic screening to identify the drug and its antidote C. Activated charcoal and Ipecac to effectively remove posion from upper and lower GIT D. Activated Charcoal with cathartics to remove poison from GIT 11. In cases of powdered-chemical poisoning, the nurse must do the following except: A. Wear gloves before holding the client B. Brush the powder off the skin lightly C. Flush with saline for 20 minutes D. Scrape the skin with a strong brush 12. The following can be used to manage clients with inhalational poisoning of Carbon Monoxide except: A. Hyperbaric Chamber B. Non-rebreather Mask C. Nasal Cannula D. Mechanical Ventilation thru ET 13. A client was admitted in the ER after a bee sting. Assessment revealed angioedema, and hives accros the body. The patient is also hyperventilating with crackles and wheezes upon auscultation. The nurse should prepare and anticipate which drug? A. Diphenhydramine B. Loratadine C. Albuterol D. Epinephrine 14. The nurse educates a group of young school boys who are going for a week-long camping in the nearby hill. When asked about snakes, the nurse answered that the following are the characteristics of a poisonous snake except: A. Triangular head B. Vertical pupils C. Multiple teeth marks D. Pit nostrils 15. The nurse adds that the following must be done as first-aid for snake bites except one: A. Immobilize the site B. Apply cold compress C. Lower the site below the heart D. Clean with soap and water 16. When caring for clients with jelly-fish stings, the nurse should tell the client to avoid the use of which of the following for first-aid? A. Salt water B. Ammonia C. Vinegar D. Soap TOP RANK REVIEW ACADEMY, INC. Page 1 | 7
17. When performing CPR, the nurse should keep in mind to apply which principle as stated in the 2010 CPR update by American Heart Association? A. Rapid Compressions and breathing B. Push hard and fast C. Compressions-only for trained professionals D. Airway management is the top priority 18. To deliver effective compressions and perfuse enough oxygen to the body, a CPR provider must deliver how many compressions per minute? A. Approximately 100/min B. At least 100/min C. Exactly 100/min D. Between 60-100/min 19. The nurse participates in the community development of a Disaster response plan, She knows that risks assessments and preventive measures are at which phase of Disaster management? A. Preparedness B. Mitigation C. Response D. Recovery 20. The community plans to conduct disaster drills and train potential disaster responders. This is which phase of disaster management? A. Preparedness B. Mitigation C. Response D. Recovery 21. In reverse triage process, the triage officer knows that the priority patient is: A. the sickest patient B. the dying patient C. the patient with ABC disturbance D. the most stable patient 22. You are a community health nurse collaborating with the Red Cross and working with disaster relief following a typhoon which flooded and devastated the whole province. Finding safe housing for survivors, organizing support for the family, organizing, counselling, debriefing sessions and securing physical care are the services you are involved with. To which type of prevention are these activities included: A. Tertiary prevention B. Primary prevention C. Aggregate care prevention D. Secondary prevention 23. During the disaster you see a victim with a green tag, you know that the person: A. has injuries that are significant and require medical care but can wait hours with threat to life or limb B. has injuries that arelife threatening but survival is good with minimal intervention C. indicates injuries that are extensive and chances of survival are unlikely even with definitive care D. has injuries that are minor and treatment can be delayed from hours to days 24. The term given to a category of triage that refers to life threatening or potentially life threatening injury or illness requiring immediate treatment: A. Immediate B. Emergent C. Non-acute D. Urgent 25. Which of the following terms refer to a process by which the individual receives education about recognition of stress reaction and management strategies for handling stress which may be instituted after a disaster? A. Clinical incident stress management B. Follow-up C. Debfriefing D. Defusion 26. Ms. W.O. is found on the floor of her room. She fell while crawling over the side rails of her bed. She is unconscious and has a large laceration to the head that is bleeding profusely. The nurse’s priority action would be: A. apply direct pressure to the laceration to her head B. ensure the patient has an open airway C. notify the physician D. check the patient’s vital signs 27. Budoy is cleaning the garage and splashes a chemical to his eyes. The initial priority care following the chemical burn is to: A. irrigate with normal saline for 1 to 15 minutes B. transport to a physician immediately C. irrigate with water for 15 minutes or longer D. cover the eyes with a sterile gauze 28. The first step in decontamination is: A. to immediately apply a chemical decontamination foam to the area of contamination B. a thorough soap and water wash and rinse of the patient C. to immediately apply personal protective equipment D. removal of the patients clothing and jewelry and then rinsing the patient with water 29. A client was admitted with stabbed wounds has a pulse rate of 75 progressed now to 112 bpm, and a BP of 120/70 mmHg now to 70/50 mmHg. He is breathing rapidly but shallow. What will the nurse suspect in this case? A. The client has a developing Hypovolemia B. The client has developed an infection C. The client is in anxiety D. The client has manifestation of a thrombotic stroke 30. A client is brought to the hospital after vomiting bright red blood and is admitted to the ER with a bleeding duodenal ulcer. While the client is bleeding, it will be essential for the nurse to assess frequently for signs of early shock. Which one of the following is an important indicator of early shock? A. Tachycardia B. Dry, Flushed skin C. Increased urine output D. Loss of consciousness Situation: Kevin, 22 years old, swerved his car and hit a tree head-on when he avoided a dog crossing the street. Kevin lost consciousness, sustained several cuts on his forehead and was bleeding from his nose and mouth. He was diagnosed in the Emergency Department with Traumatic Brain Injury (TBI). 31. Since volume resuscitation was necessary for Kevin, intravenous hypertonic saline solution was started. The nurse who admitted the patient understands that this intravenous solution was considered by the physician because it A. Will reduce intracranial pressure B. Will easily maintain hydration C. Will promote fluid shift into the vascular space D. Won’t aggravate cerebral edema 32. To determine level of consciousness, the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is used. Which of the following is a correct interpretation of the nurse of the GCS score of Kevin? A. The higher the score, the higher is the probability of permanent damage B. The lower the score is, the lower is the probability of delayed recovery C. The higher the score, the greater is the impairment in the brain D. The lower the score, the more serious is the brain injury 33. The nurse maintains the body temperature of Kevin within normal limits. This intervention is significant in preventing which of the following? A. Cerebral ischemia B. Infection C. Seizures D. Dehydration TOP RANK REVIEW ACADEMY, INC. Page 2 | 7
34. When intracranial pressure increases, which of the following nursing diagnosis is appropriate? A. Risk for ineffective breathing pattern B. Disturbed sensory perception C. Risk for cardiac dysfunction D. Ineffective airway clearance 35. Which of the following interventions can the nurse include in the plan of care for Kevin to control intracranial pressure? 1. Maintain his head and neck in neutral alignment 2. Initiate measures to enhance valsalva maneuver 3. Administer O2 to maintain paO2 >90 mmHg 4. Elevate head of the bed as prescribed A. 1 and 2 B. All except 2 C. 3 and 4 D. All of the above Situation: Helen, a Pediatric Intensive Care Unit staff nurse, is assigned to a 4-year-old female unconscious patient due to an acute head injury sustained from a vehicular accident. 36. Helen identifies which of the following nursing diagnosis to be of highest priority? A. Risk for injury related to increased intracranial pressure B. Disturbed sensory perception relation to central nervous system impairment C. Risk for aspiration related to impaired motor functions. D. Ineffective airway clearance related to depressed sensorium 37. When interpreting the patient’s degree of depressed coma, the pediatric Glasgow Coma Scale is used. Which of the following is not included in the three-part assessment of the scale? A. Motor responses B. Response to auditory and verbal stimuli C. Pupils size and reaction D. Eye opening 38. During assessment, the nurse observes absence of doll’s eye movement. Which of the following is the correct interpretation of this observation? A. Ruptured aneurysm B. Meningeal inflammation C. Brainstem injury D. Subdural hematoma 39. Due to hypothalamic dysfunction, a syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone develops. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse watch closely? A. Increased urine output, decreased urine specific gravity, decreased serum sodium B. Increased urine output, increased urine specific gravity, increased serum sodium C. Decreased urine output, decreased urine specific gravity, increased serum sodium D. Decreased urine output, increased urine specific gravity, decreased serum sodium 40. During admission of a patient with a severe head injury to the emergency department, the nurse places the highest priority on assessment for: A. presence of a neck injury B. neurological status with the Glasgow Coma Scale C. cerebrospinal fluid leakage from ears or nose D. patency of airway Situation: Nurse Girlie witnesses a vehicular accident near the hospital where she works. She decides to get involved and help the victims of the accident 41. Her priority nursing action would be to: A. Assess damage to property B. Assist in the police investigation since she is a witness C. Report the incident immediately to the local police authorities D. Assess the extent of injuries incurred by the victims of the accident 42. Priority attention should be given to which of these clients? A. Linda who shows severe anxiety due to trauma of the accident B. Ryan who has chest injury, is pale and with difficulty breathing C. Noel who has lacerations on the arms with mild bleeding D. Andy whose left ankle swelled and has some abrasions 43. The nurse applies dressing on the bleeding site. This intervention is done to: A. Reduce the need to change dressing frequently B. Allow the pus to surface faster C. Protect the wound from microorganisms in the air D. Promote hemostasis 44. After the treatment, the client is sent home and asked to come back for follow-up care. Your responsibilities when the client is to be discharged include the following EXCEPT: A. Encouraging the client to go to the outpatient clinic for follow up care B. Accurate recording of treatment done and instructions given to client C. Instructing the client to see you after discharge for further assistance D. Providing instructions regarding wound care 45. You are assigned to care for four (4) patients. Which of the following patients should you give first priority? A. Grace, who is terminally ill with breast cancer. B. Emy, who was previously lucid but is now unarousable. C. Aris, who is newly admitted and is scheduled for an executive check-up. D. Claire, who has cholelithiasis and is for operation on call 46. A young client who was hit by a car was fortunate because the level of injury did not interrupt his respiratory function. The cord segment involved with maintain respiratory function are: A. Thoracic level 5 and 6 B. Thoracic level 2 and 3 C. Cervical level 7 and 8 D. Cervical level 3 and 4 47. A quadriplegic client tell the nurse that he believes he is experiencing an episode of autonomic hyperreflexia (dysreflexia). The first nursing intervention if to: A. Ask him what he thinks has precipitated this episode B. Assess his blood pressure and pulse C. Elevate his head as high as possible D. Assist him in emptying his bladder Situation: Ms. Alcantara’s blood pressure is 70/30 mmHg, she is in a sinus tachycardia with a rate of 40 and her respiratory rate is 6 breaths per minute. Her respirations are irregular and she has 20 second periods of apnea. Assessment continues and the nurse noted large occipital laceration and protruded bone on her left leg. 48. When performing an assessment the nurse identifies a clear, watery drainage oozing from the client’s ear. Before notifying the physician, the best nursing action to take would be: A. Testing the fluid for glucose and applying sterile dressing. B. Positioning the client so that the unaffected ear is dependent. C. Covering the area with sterile gauze and applying slight pressure. D. Cleaning the outer ear with normal saline and inserting a clean cotton ball. TOP RANK REVIEW ACADEMY, INC. Page 3 | 7