Title RECALLS 9 (NP3) - STUDENT COPY ✅

1 | Page RECALLS EXAMINATION 9 NURSING PRACTICE III CARE OF CLIENTS WITH PHYSIOLOGIC AND PSYCHOSOCIAL ALTERATIONS (PART A) MAY 2025 Philippine Nurse Licensure Examination Review GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS: 1. This test questionnaire contains 100 test questions 2. Shade only one (1) box for each question on your answer sheets. Two or more boxes shaded will invalid your answer. 3. AVOID ERASURES. 4. Detach one (1) answer sheet from the bottom of your Examinee ID/Answer Sheet Set. 5. Write the subject title “NURSING PRACTICE I” on the box provided SITUATION: Arthur, a registered nurse, witnessed an old woman hit by a motorcycle while crossing a train railway. The old woman fell at the railway. Arthur rushed to the scene. 1. As a registered nurse, Arthur knew that the first thing he will do at the scene is A. Stay with the person, encourage her to remain still, and immobilize the leg while waiting for the ambulance. B. Leave the person for a few moments to call for help. C. Reduce the fracture manually. D. Move the person to a safer place. 2. Arthur suspects a hip fracture when he noticed that the old woman’s leg is A. Lengthened, abducted, and internally rotated. B. Shortened, abducted, and externally rotated. C. Shortened, adducted, and internally rotated. D. Shortened, adducted, and externally rotated. 3. The old woman complains of pain. Arthur noticed that the knee is reddened, warm to touch, and swollen. Arthur interprets that these signs and symptoms are likely related to A. Infection B. Thrombophlebitis C. Inflammation D. Degenerative disease 4. The old woman told Arthur that she has osteoporosis. Arthur knew that all of the following factors would contribute to osteoporosis except A. Hypothyroidism B. End-stage renal disease C. Cushing’s disease D. Taking furosemide and phenytoin 5. Martha, the old woman, was now immobilized and brought to the emergency room. The X-ray shows a fractured femur and pelvis. The ER nurse would carefully monitor Martha for which of the following signs and symptoms? A. Tachycardia and hypotension B. Fever and bradycardia C. Bradycardia and hypertension D. Fever and hypertension SITUATION: Mr. D. Rojas, an obese 35-year-old MS Professor, is admitted due to pain in his weight-bearing joints. The diagnosis is osteoarthritis. 6. As a nurse, you instructed Mr. Rojas how to use a cane. Mr. Rojas has a weakness on his right leg due to self- immobilization and guarding. You plan to teach Mr. Rojas to hold the cane A. On his left hand, because his right side is weak. B. On his left hand, because his left side is weak. C. On his right hand, to support the right leg. D. On his right hand, because only his right leg is weak. 7. You also told Mr. Rojas to hold the cane A. 1 inch in front of the foot. B. 3 inches at the lateral side of the foot. C. 6 inches at the lateral side of the foot. D. 12 inches at the lateral side of the foot. 8. Mr. Rojas was discharged, and six months later, he came back to the emergency room of the hospital because he suffered a mild stroke. The right side of the brain was affected. At the rehabilitative phase of your nursing care, you observe Mr. Rojas use a cane, and you intervene if you see him A. Move the cane when the right leg is moved. B. Lean on the cane when the right leg swings through. C. Keep the cane 6 inches out to the side of the right foot. D. Hold the cane on the right side. SITUATION: Alfred, a 40-year-old construction worker, developed a cough, night sweats, and fever. He was brought to the nursing unit for diagnostic studies. He told the nurse he did not receive a BCG vaccine during childhood. 9. The nurse performs a Mantoux test. The nurse knows that the Mantoux test is also known as A. PPD B. PDP C. PDD D. DPP 10. The nurse would inject the solution in what route? A. IM B. IV C. ID D. SC 11. The nurse notes that a positive result for Alfred is A. 5 mm wheal B. 5 mm induration C. 10 mm wheal D. 10 mm induration 12. The nurse told Alfred to come back after A. A week B. 48 hours C. 1 day D. 4 days 13. Mang Alfred returns after the Mantoux test. The test result reads positive. What should be the nurse’s next action? A. Retest the patient. B. Notify the radiology department for CXR evaluation. C. Isolate the patient. D. Order for a sputum exam. 14. Why is the Mantoux test not routinely done in the Philippines? A. It requires a highly skilled nurse to perform a Mantoux test. B. The sputum culture is the gold standard of PTB diagnosis and will definitively determine the extent of the cavitary lesions. C. Chest X-ray can diagnose the specific microorganism responsible for the lesions. D. Almost all Filipinos will test positive for the Mantoux test. 15. Mang Alfred is now a new TB patient with an active disease. What is his category according to the DOH? A. I * NLE * NCLEX * CGFNS * HAAD * PROMETRICS * DHA * MIDWIFERY * LET * RAD TECH * CRIMINOLOGY * DENTISTRY * PHARMACY *
2 | Page B. II C. III D. IV 16. How long is the duration of the maintenance phase of his treatment? A. 2 months B. 3 months C. 4 months D. 5 months 17. Which of the following drugs is unlikely given to Mang Alfred during the maintenance phase? A. Rifampicin B. Isoniazid C. Ethambutol D. Pyridoxine 18. According to the DOH, the most hazardous period for the development of clinical disease is during the first A. 6-12 months after B. 3-6 months after C. 1-2 months after D. 2-4 weeks after 19. This is the name of the program of the DOH to control TB in the country A. DOTS B. National Tuberculosis Control Program C. Short-Course Chemotherapy D. Expanded Program for Immunization 20. Susceptibility for the disease (TB) is increased markedly in those with the following conditions except A. 23-year-old athlete with diabetes insipidus B. 23-year-old athlete taking long-term Decadron therapy and anabolic steroids C. 23-year-old athlete taking illegal drugs and abusing substances D. Undernourished and underweight individual who underwent gastrectomy SITUATION: A 65-year-old woman was admitted for Parkinson’s Disease. The charge nurse is going to make an initial assessment. 21. Which of the following is a characteristic of a patient with advanced Parkinson’s disease? A. Disturbed vision B. Forgetfulness C. Mask-like facial expression D. Muscle atrophy 22. The onset of Parkinson’s disease is between 50-60 years old. This disorder is caused by: A. Injurious chemical substances B. Hereditary factors C. Death of brain cells due to old age D. Impairment of dopamine-producing cells in the brain 23. The patient was prescribed levodopa. What is the action of this drug? A. Increases dopamine availability B. Activates dopaminergic receptors in the basal ganglia C. Decreases acetylcholine availability D. Releases dopamine and other catecholamines from neurological storage sites 24. You are discussing with the dietitian what food to avoid with patients taking levodopa. A. Vitamin C-rich food B. Vitamin E-rich food C. Thiamine-rich food D. Vitamin B6-rich food 25. One day, the patient complained of difficulty in walking. Your FIRST response would be: A. "You will need a cane for support." B. "Walk erect with eyes on the horizon." C. "I’ll get you a wheelchair." D. "Don’t force yourself to walk." SITUATION: Mr. Dela Isla, a client with early dementia, exhibits thought process disturbances. 26. The nurse will assess a loss of ability in which of the following areas? A. Balance B. Judgment C. Speech D. Endurance 27. Mr. Dela Isla said he cannot comprehend what the nurse was saying. He suffers from: A. Insomnia B. Apraxia C. Agnosia D. Aphasia 28. The nurse is aware that in communicating with an elderly client, the nurse will: A. Lean and shout at the ear of the client B. Open mouth wide while talking to the client C. Use a low-pitched voice D. Use a high-pitched voice 29. As the nurse talks to the daughter of Mr. Dela Isla, which of the following statements by the daughter will require the nurse to give further teaching? A. "I know the hallucinations are part of the disease." B. "I told her she is wrong and I explained to her what is right." C. "I help her do some tasks she cannot do for herself." D. "I'll turn off the TV when we go to another room." 30. Which of the following is the most important discharge teaching for Mr. Dela Isla? A. Emergency numbers B. Drug compliance C. Relaxation techniques D. Dietary prescription SITUATION: Mr. Franco, 70 years old, suddenly could not lift his spoon nor speak at breakfast. He was rushed to the hospital unconscious. His diagnosis was CVA. 31. Which of the following is the most important assessment during the acute stage of an unconscious patient like Mr. Franco? A. Level of awareness and response to pain B. Papillary reflexes and response to sensory stimuli C. Coherence and sense of hearing D. Patency of airway and adequacy of respiration 32. Considering Mr. Franco’s condition, which of the following is most important to include in preparing Franco’s bedside equipment? A. Hand bell and extra bed linen B. Sandbag and trochanter rolls C. Footboard and splint D. Suction machine and gloves 33. What is the rationale for giving Mr. Franco frequent mouth care? A. He will be thirsty considering that he doesn’t drink enough fluids B. To remove dried blood when the tongue is bitten during a seizure C. The tactile stimulation during mouth care will hasten return to consciousness D. Mouth breathing is used by comatose patients and it will cause oral mucosa drying and cracking 34. One of the complications of prolonged bed rest is decubitus ulcer. Which of the following can best prevent its occurrence? A. Massage reddened areas with lotion or oils B. Turn frequently every 2 hours C. Use special water mattress D. Keep skin clean and dry 35. If Mr. Franco’s right side is weak, what should be the most accurate analysis by the nurse? A. Expressive aphasia is prominent in clients with right- sided weakness B. The affected lobe in the patient is the right lobe C. The client will have problems in judging distance and proprioception D. Client’s orientation to time and space will be much affected SITUATION: A 20-year-old college student was rushed to the ER after fainting during ROTC drill. He complained of severe right iliac pain. Upon palpation of his abdomen, he jerks even on slight pressure. Blood test was ordered. Diagnosis is acute appendicitis.
3 | Page 36. Which result of the lab test will be significant to the diagnosis? A. RBC: 4.5 to 5 million/cu. mm. B. Hgb: 13 to 14 gm/dl. C. Platelets: 250,000 to 500,000/cu. mm. D. WBC: 12,000 to 13,000/cu. mm. 37. Stat appendectomy was indicated. Pre-op care would include all of the following except: A. Consent signed by the father B. Enema STAT C. Skin prep of the area including the pubis D. Remove the jewelry 38. Pre-anesthetic medication of Demerol and atropine sulfate were ordered to: A. Allay anxiety and apprehension B. Reduce pain C. Prevent vomiting D. Relax abdominal muscles 39. Common anesthesia for open appendectomy is: A. Spinal B. General C. Caudal D. Hypnosis 40. Post-op care for appendectomy includes the following except: A. Early ambulation B. Diet as tolerated after fully conscious C. Nasogastric tube connected to suction D. Deep breathing and leg exercise 41. Peritonitis may occur in ruptured appendix and may cause serious problems, which are: A. Hypovolemia, electrolyte imbalance B. Elevated temperature, weakness, and diaphoresis C. Nausea and vomiting, rigidity of the abdominal wall D. Pallor and eventually shock A. A and B B. B and C C. A, B, and C D. All of the above 42. If after surgery the patient’s abdomen becomes distended and no bowel sounds are appreciated, what would be the most suspected complication? A. Intussusception B. Paralytic Ileus C. Hemorrhage D. Ruptured colon 43. NGT was connected to suction. In caring for the patient with NGT, the nurse must: A. Irrigate the tube with saline as ordered B. Use sterile technique in irrigating the tube C. Advance the tube every hour to avoid kinks D. Offer some ice chips to wet lips 44. When do you think the NGT tube should be removed? A. When patient requests for it B. When abdomen is soft and patient asks for water C. When abdomen is soft and flatus has been expelled D. B and C only SITUATION: Wide knowledge about the human ear, its parts, and its functions will help a nurse assess and analyze changes in the adult client’s health. 45. Nurse Anna is doing a caloric testing on her patient, Aida, a 55-year-old university professor who recently went into a coma after being mauled by her disgruntled 3rd-year nursing students whom she gave a failing mark. After instilling warm water in the ear, Anna noticed a rotary nystagmus towards the irrigated ear. What does this mean? A. Indicates a CN VIII Dysfunction B. Abnormal C. Normal D. Inconclusive 46. Ear drops are prescribed to an infant. The most appropriate method to administer the ear drops is: A. Pull the pinna up and back and direct the solution towards the eardrum B. Pull the pinna down and back and direct the solution onto the wall of the canal C. Pull the pinna down and back and direct the solution towards the eardrum D. Pull the pinna up and back and direct the solution onto the wall of the canal 47. Nurse Jenny is developing a plan of care for a patient with Meniere’s disease. What is the priority nursing intervention in the plan of care for this particular patient? A. Air, Breathing, Circulation B. Love and Belongingness C. Food, Diet, and Nutrition D. Safety 48. After mastoidectomy, Nurse John should be aware that the cranial nerve that is usually damaged after this procedure is: A. CN I B. CN II C. CN VII D. CN VI 49. The physician orders the following for the client with Meniere’s disease. Which of the following should the nurse question? A. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) B. Atropine sulfate C. Out of bed activities and ambulation D. Diazepam (Valium) 50. Nurse Anna is giving dietary instruction to a client with Meniere’s disease. Which statement, if made by the client, indicates that the teaching has been successful? A. "I will try to eat foods that are low in sodium and limit my fluid intake." B. "I must drink at least 3,000 ml of fluids per day." C. "I will try to follow a 50% carbohydrate, 30% fat, and 20% protein diet." D. "I will not eat turnips, red meat, and radish." 51. Daniel has been diagnosed with a peptic ulcer and is experiencing a headache. Which analgesic drug is generally considered safe for him? A. Paracetamol B. Ibuprofen C. Mefenamic Acid D. Diclofenac 52. Elizabeth reported eating at 7:00 PM and experiencing upper abdominal pain around 9:10 PM. She also mentioned weight gain, as eating helps alleviate her discomfort. What condition is she most likely developing? A. Duodenal Ulcer B. Gastric Ulcer C. Ulcerative Colitis D. Chron’s Disease 53. Stephanie is hospitalized after experiencing vomiting of bright red blood and is diagnosed with a bleeding duodenal ulcer. Suddenly, she reports a 10/10 pain intensity, describing sharp pain in the midepigastric region, and presents with a rigid, board-like abdomen. Which condition are these symptoms most likely indicative of? A. She has an inflamed esophagus. B. She has developed additional ulcers. C. An intestinal obstruction has developed. D. The ulcer has perforated. 54. Han was diagnosed with peptic ulcer and went to the hospital since she is experiencing epigastric pain that often disrupts her sleep during the night. What action should the nurse advise the patient to take? Select all that apply: I. Ensure sufficient rest to minimize stress. II. Consume small, frequent meals during the day. III. Take prescribed medications promptly as directed. IV. Remain seated for an hour if woken up at night. V. Avoid crowded places A. I, II, III, V B. II, III, IV, V C. I, II, III, IV D. all of the above 55. The nurse educates Jona on health practices to help manage her hiatal hernia symptoms. Which of the following statements shows that Jona understands the instructions? A. "I will avoid lying down after meals." B. "I can still have potato chips and soda before going to bed." C. "I wish I didn’t have to quit swimming."