Content text AUD Self Study Part 3.pdf
VSA IRS CPA Review AUDITING SELF REVIEW MATERIALS (C) PART 1- SELF ASSESSMENT 1. Which of the following factors most likely would cause a CPA to not accept a new audit engagement? A. The prospective client has fired its prior auditor. B. The CPA lacks a thorough understanding of the prospective client's operations and industry. C. The CPA is unable to review the predecessor auditor's working papers. D. The prospective client is unwilling to make financial records available to the CPA. 2. Which of the following factors most likely would heighten an auditor's concern about the risk of fraudulent financial reporting? A. Large amounts of liquid assets that are easily convertible into cash. B. Low growth and profitability as compared to other entity's in the same industry. C. Financial management's participation in the initial selection of accounting principles. D. An overly complex organizational structure involving unusual lines of authority. 3. Which of the following factors would most likely cause a CPA to decide not to accept a new audit engagement? A. Lack of understanding of the potential client's internal auditors' computer-assisted audit techniques. B. Management's disregard for internal control. C. The existence of related party transactions. D. Management's attempt to meet earnings per share growth rate goals. 4. Which of the following would heighten an auditor's concern about the risk of fraudulent financial reporting? A. Inability to generate positive cash flows from operations, while reporting large increases in earnings. B. Management's lack of interest in increasing the dividend paid on common stock. C. Large amounts of liquid assets that are easily convertible into cash. D. Inability to borrow necessary capital without obtaining waivers on debt covenants. 5. To best test existence, an auditor would sample from the: A. General Ledger to source documents. B. General Ledger to the financial statements. C. Source documents to the general ledger. D. Source documents to journals. 6. The auditors' understanding established with a client should be established through a(an) A. Oral communication with the client. B. Written communication with the client. C. Written or oral communication with the client. D. Completely detailed audit plan. 7. Which of the following would be least likely to be considered an audit planning procedure? A. Use an engagement letter. B. Develop the overall audit strategy C. Perform the risk assessment. D. Develop the audit plan. 8. While assessing the risks of material misstatement auditors identify risks, relate risk to what could go wrong, consider the magnitude of risks and A. Assess the risk of misstatements due to illegal acts. B. Consider the complexity of the transactions involved. C. Consider the likelihood that the risks could result in material misstatements. D. Determine materiality levels. 9. Which measure of materiality (or both) considers quantitative considerations? A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D 10. In using the information on the statement of cash flows while obtaining an understanding of a profitable, growing company, which of the following would ordinarily be least surprising to an auditor? A. Decreases in accounts payable. B. Decreases in accounts receivable. C. Negative cash flows from investing. D. Negative operating cash flows.
11. Audits of financial statements are designed to obtain reasonable assurance of detecting material misstatements due to: A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D 12. Which of the following is not one of the assertions made by management about an account balance? A. Relevance. B. Existence. C. Valuation. D. Rights and obligations. 13. When a company has changed auditors, according to the Professional Standards: A. The successor auditor has the responsibility to initiate contact with the predecessor auditor to ask about the client before the engagement is accepted; the predecessor has no responsibility to initiate this contact, even when aware of matters bearing on the integrity of management. B. The predecessor must respond fully to all inquiries made by the successor auditor. C. The successor must discuss with the predecessor matters bearing on the engagement prior to accepting the engagement. D. The successor may choose not to attempt any communication with the predecessor auditor. 14. Which of the following procedures is not performed as a part of planning an audit engagement? A. Reviewing the working papers of the prior year. B. Performing analytical procedures. C. Confirmation of all major accounts. D. Designing an audit program. 15. The risk of a material misstatement occurring in an account, assuming an absence of internal control, is referred to as: A. Account risk. B. Control risk. C. Detection risk. D. Inherent risk. 16. Which of the following is an example of fraudulent financial reporting? A. Company management falsifies inventory count tags thereby overstating ending inventory and understating cost of goods sold. B. An employee diverts customer payments to his personal use, concealing his actions by debiting an expense account, thus overstating expenses. C. An employee steals inventor and the "shrinkage" is recorded in cost of goods sold. D. An employee "borrows" tools from the company and neglects to return them; the cost is reported as a miscellaneous operating expense. 17. Which of the following is most likely to be considered a risk factor relating to fraudulent financial reporting? A. Low turnover of senior management. B. Extreme degree of competition within the industry. C. Capital structure including various operating subsidiaries. D. Sales goals in excess of any of the preceding three years. 18. Which of the following conditions identified during the audit increases the risk of employee fraud? A. Large amounts of cash in the bank. B. Existence of a mandatory vacation policy for employees performing key functions. C. Inventory items of small size, but high value. D. Presence of reconciling items on a client prepared year-end proof of cash. 19. A successor auditor is required to attempt communication with the predecessor auditor prior to A. Performing test of controls. B. Testing beginning balances for the current year. C. Making a proposal for the audit engagement. D. Accepting the engagement.
20. Which of the following is not an example of a likely adjustment in the auditors' overall audit approach when significant risk is found to exist? A. Apply increased professional skepticism about material transactions. B. Increase the assessed level of detection risk. C. Assign personnel with particular skill to areas of high risk. D. Obtain increased evidence about the appropriateness of management's selection of accounting principles. 21. Which of the following is least likely to be required on an audit? A. Evaluate the business rationale for significant, unusual transactions. B. Make a legal determination of whether fraud has occurred. C. Review accounting estimates for biases. D. Test appropriateness of journal entries and adjustments. 22. Which of the following is (are) considered a further audit procedure(s) that may be designed after assessing the risks of material misstatement? A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D 23. If the business environment is experiencing a recession, the auditor most likely would focus increased attention on which of the following accounts? A. Purchase returns and allowances. B. Allowance for doubtful accounts. C. Common stock. D. Noncontrolling interest of a subsidiary purchased during the year. 24. The risk that the auditors' procedures will lead them to conclude that a material misstatement does not exist in an account balance when in fact such a misstatement does exist is referred to as: A. Account risk. B. Control risk. C. Detection risk. D. Inherent risk. 25. The auditors must consider materiality in planning an audit engagement. Materiality for planning purposes is: A. The auditors' preliminary estimate of the largest amount of misstatement that would be material to any one of the client's financial statements. B. The auditors' preliminary estimate of the smallest amount of misstatement that would be material to any one of the client's financial statements. C. The auditors' preliminary estimate of the amount of misstatement that would be material to the client's balance sheet. D. An amount that cannot be quantitatively stated since it depends on the nature of the item. 26. Which of the following topics is not normally included in an engagement letter? A. The auditors' preliminary assessment of internal control. B. The auditors' estimate of the fee for the engagement. C. Limitations on the scope of the engagement. D. A description of responsibility for the detection of fraud. 27. Which of the following is most likely to be an overall response to fraud risks identified in an audit? A. Only use certified public accountants on the engagement. B. Place increased emphasis on the audit of objective transactions rather than subjective transactions. C. Supervise members of the audit team less closely and rely more upon judgment. D. Use less predictable audit procedures. 28. Which of the following is not an assertion that is made in the financial statements by management concerning each major account balance? A. Completeness. B. Rights and obligations. C. Legality. D. Valuation. 29. Tests for unrecorded assets typically involve tracing from: A. Source documents to recorded journal entries. B. Source documents to observations. C. Recorded journal entries to documents. D. Recorded journal entries to observations.
30. Tracing from source documents forward to ledgers is most likely to address which assertion related to posted entries: A. Completeness. B. Existence. C. Rights. D. Valuation. 31. Determining that receivables are presented at net-realizable value is most directly related to which management assertion? A. Existence. B. Rights. C. Valuation. D. Presentation and disclosure. 32. Which of the following is not a general objective for the audit of asset accounts? A. Establishing existence of assets. B. Establishing proper valuation of assets. C. Establishing proper liabilities relating to assets. D. Establishing the completeness of assets. 33. Which of the following is not used by auditors to establish the completeness of recorded assets? A. Assessing control risk. B. Tracing from source documents to entries in the accounting records. C. Performing analytical procedures. D. Vouching transactions. 34. To test for unsupported entries in the journals, the direction of audit testing should be to the: A. Ledger entries. B. Journal entries. C. Original source documents. D. Financial statements. 35. The first standard of field work recognizes that early appointment of the independent auditors has many advantages to the auditors and the client. Which of the following advantages is least likely to occur as a result of early appointment of the auditors? A. The auditors will be able to plan the audit work so that it may be done expeditiously. B. The auditors will be able to complete substantive procedures prior to year-end. C. The auditors will be able to better plan for the observation of the physical inventories. D. The auditors will be able to perform the examination more efficiently and will be finished at an early date after the year-end. 36. Preliminary arrangements agreed to by the auditors and the client should be reduced to writing by the auditors. The best place to set forth these arrangements is in: A. A memorandum to be placed in the permanent section of the auditing working papers. B. An engagement letter. C. A client representation letter. D. A confirmation letter attached to the constructive services letter. 37. The auditors will not ordinarily initiate discussion with the audit committee concerning the: A. Extent to which the work of internal auditors will influence the scope of the examination. B. Extent to which change in the company's organization will influence the scope of the examination. C. Details of potential problems which the auditors believe might cause a qualified opinion. D. Details of the procedures which the auditors intend to apply. 38. Which statement is correct relating to a potential successor auditor's responsibility for communicating with the predecessor auditors in connection with a prospective new audit client? A. The successor auditors have no responsibility to contact the predecessor auditors. B. The successor auditors should obtain permission from the prospective client to contact the predecessor auditors. C. The successor auditors should contact the predecessors regardless of whether the prospective client authorizes contact. D. The successor auditors need not contact the predecessors if the successors are aware of all available relevant facts. 39. Which of the following situations would most likely require special audit planning by the auditors? A. Some items of factory and office equipment do not bear identification numbers. B. Depreciation methods used on the client's tax return differ from those used on the books. C. Assets costing less than $500 are expensed even though the expected life exceeds one year. D. Inventory is comprised of precious stones. 40. When planning an audit, an auditor should: A. Consider whether the extent of substantive procedures may be reduced based on the results of the internal control questionnaire. B. Make preliminary judgments about materiality levels for audit purposes. C. Conclude whether changes in compliance with prescribed control procedures justifies reliance on them. D. Prepare a preliminary draft of the management representation letter.
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