Title RECALLS 10 - NP2 - SC ✅

1 | Page RECALLS 10 EXAMINATION NURSING PRACTICE II CARE OF HEALTHY / AT RISK MOTHER AND CHILD NOV 2025 Philippine Nurse Licensure Examination Review GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS: 1. This test questionnaire contains 100 test questions 2. Shade only one (1) box for each question on your answer sheets. Two or more boxes shaded will invalid your answer. 3. AVOID ERASURES. 4. Detach one (1) answer sheet from the bottom of your Examinee ID/Answer Sheet Set. 5. Write the subject title “NURSING PRACTICE I” on the box provided Situation: Nurse Mhariel is a dedicated and experienced nurse at Princeton–Plainsboro Teaching Hospital. She has been assigned by her nursing supervisor to conduct prenatal education sessions for expectant mothers on the topic of chromosomal disorders and their potential impact on fetal development. Nurse Mhariel believes that empowering mothers with accurate information is crucial for them to make well-informed choices about their pregnancies and navigate potential challenges with confidence. 1. Kylie, one of the participants, is worried that her baby might have Trisomy 21, which is the most frequently occurring chromosomal abnormality. Which of the following sets of physical characteristics are typically associated with Down syndrome? A. Broad nose, upward-slanting eyes, and an inward- curved little finger. B. Downward-slanting eyes, inward-curved little finger, and broad nose. C. Narrow nose, outward-curved little finger, and downward-slanting eyes. D. Upward-slanting eyes, narrow nose, and outward- curved little finger. 2. What is the average life span of children with Down syndrome? A. 15 to 25 years B. 30 to 40 years C. 50 to 60 years D. 65 to 70 years 3. If an expecting mother of a baby girl is a balanced translocation carrier for Down syndrome, what is the approximate percentage risk of her having a child with Down syndrome? A. 25% B. 50% C. 100% D. 15% 4. Gaudette, a participant, learned online about a chromosomal disorder associated with a distinctive "cat-like" cry in infants. Which of the following chromosomal abnormalities is correctly identified by Nurse Mhariel as the cause of this condition? A. 47XXY B. 47XY18 C. 45X0 D. 46XY5P 5. Aly, a pregnant woman with no family history of genetic disorders, is concerned because her husband's sister has Patau syndrome. She wants to understand the potential impact of the disease on her child, including potential symptoms and management strategies. Which of the following are characteristic features of Patau syndrome? I. Microcephaly II. Low-set ears III. Cat-like cry IV. Overriding of fingers V. Narrow-set nipples VI. Rocker-bottom feet A. I, II, V, VI B. I, IV, V C. I, II, VI D. I, III, IV, V, VI Situation: Nurse Maria is a community health nurse in Brgy. Miraposa in the Philippines. She is deeply concerned about the limited access to developmental screening tools and early intervention services for young children in her community. Many parents are unaware of potential developmental delays in their children, leading to missed opportunities for early intervention and potentially hindering their child's long-term development. Nurse Maria believes that by introducing the MMDST (Metro Manila Developmental Screening Test) to her community and training local health workers on its administration and interpretation, she can empower parents to identify potential developmental concerns early on and connect families with necessary support services. 6. Nurse Maria is getting ready to conduct a training regarding MMDST to the local health workers of Brgy. Miraposa. She wants to assemble the MMDST kit to be used during the training. The kit contains the following test materials. Which of the following sets are correct? I. Small clear bottle with ⅝ inch opening II. Small bell with 3 ½ inch-diameter mouth III. Rattle with a colorful handle IV. Rubber ball 12 ½ inches in circumference * NLE * NCLEX * CGFNS * HAAD * PROMETRICS * DHA * MIDWIFERY * LET * RAD TECH * CRIMINOLOGY * DENTISTRY * PHARMACY *
2 | Page V. Cheese curls A. I, II, III, IV B. I, IV, V C. II, III, V D. I, II, III, IV, V 7. Michaela, a local health worker in Brgy. Mariposa, learned about the different sectors of the MMDST (Metro Manila Developmental Screening Test). All of the following are NOT included as sectors of the MMDST except: A. Language B. Emotional-Behavioral C. Sensory Motor D. Play-Social 8. Personal-social is one of the main categories of development in MMDST. Nurse Lucy understands that some tests under the personal-social category can be passed simply by the parents reporting to the nurse whether their child has achieved it at home. Which of the following test questions below cannot be passed by report? A. Ngumingiti na ba ang bata kung kinakausap mo, kahit hindi hinahawakan? B. Nakakakain na ba siya mag-isa ng cracker? C. Inaabot niya ba ang kanyang mga laruan? D. Anu-anong uri ng laro ang sinasalihan niya kasama ng ibang bata? 9. Katrina, a 2-year-old child, is being assessed by Nurse Maria using the MMDST. However, Katrina refuses to participate in the assessment and continues to hide behind her mother. Her mother explains to the nurse that her child is shy with strangers. Which of the following actions should Nurse Maria avoid when dealing with a shy child?" A. Offer the child a cheese curl or a block to play prior to testing. B. Ask the parent to demonstrate some of the test items to the child. C. Start testing with items that are scored by report. D. If all suggestions fail and the test is not complete, retest 3-5 days later. 10. Nurse Maria completed conducting the Metro Manila Developmental Screening Test (MMDST) on Christian, a 6- month-old baby. While interpreting the results, she noted that Christian failed three tests in the gross motor skills category. Nurse Maria's interpretation of the result is: A. Normal B. Questionable C. Abnormal D. Untestable 11. What does the hatch mark in each item bar of the MMDST scoring sheet mean? A. 90% of children in this age group can normally perform and pass the specific item test B. 75% of children in this age group can normally perform and pass the specific item test C. 25% of children in this age group can normally perform and pass the specific item test D. 50% of children in this age group can normally perform and pass the specific item test 12. Nurse Aiah was testing the fine-motor skills of a 5-year-old boy. He was shown parallel lines written by the nurse on the back of the test form. The 2 lines were written of different length, and the child was then asked to point which line he thinks is longer. The nurse then turned the sheet upside down and asked the same question again. This was done for a total of 6 times. He was correct 4 out of 6 times. How should nurse Aiah score the boy? A. Passed B. Failed C. Refused D. No Opportunity 13. Jillian gave birth to a healthy baby boy four hours ago and named him John. The nurse needs to educate her about the importance of fluid intake for newborns, as their extracellular fluid composition differs from that of adults. What percentage of a newborn’s body weight consists of extracellular fluid? A. 15%, compared to 45% in an adult. B. 30%, compared to 80% in an adult. C. 50%, compared to 15% in an adult. D. 35%, compared to 20% in an adult. 14. As a new mother, Jillian is eager to learn all she can about caring for her son. She asks the nurse about the stomach capacity of a newborn. Nurse Andrea is correct if she answered: A. 15 to 30 mL B. 30 to 60 mL C. 60 to 90 mL D. 90 to 120 mL 15. John's lower central incisors erupted when he was six months old. His mother wants to know which tooth is most likely to erupt when he reaches eight months of age. Which of the following is correct? A. Upper lateral incisor B. Lower lateral incisor C. Lower first molar D. Upper central incisor 16. Four months after the eruption of John's lower central incisors, John is able to exhibit all of the following fine motor movement EXCEPT: A. Follows object past midline B. Uses thumb and finger to pick up small objects C. Transfers objects hand to hand D. Holds cup and spoon well 17. Jillian wants to start introducing solid foods to John. What is the correct sequence? I. Vegetables II. Cereal III. Egg yolk IV. Fruit V. Meat A. II, IV, I, V, III B. II, I, IV, V, III C. I, II, IV, V, III D. I, II, IV, III, V Situation: Nurse Chelsea is assigned to the Pediatric Ward of a tertiary hospital with various cases of physiologic aberrations. The following set of questions applies. 18. As a pediatric nurse, you are preparing Faye, a 5-year-old, for a voiding cystourethrogram. During the procedure, Faye starts showing signs of distress. What could be causing her discomfort? A. They exhibit a discomfort to voiding in front of other people. B. The injection of the radiopaque dye feels painful. C. The urinary catheterization procedure is scary for them. D. They feel claustrophobic lying in the MRI machine 19. Wonwoo's mother is worried about his nutrition as a diabetic adolescent. She seeks your guidance to ensure he receives proper nutrition. Which of the following statements

4 | Page 32. A pregnant woman in her second trimester is discussing common pregnancy changes with her healthcare provider. They discuss how the vaginal environment changes to protect the developing fetus. The change in vaginal pH during pregnancy from alkaline to acidic is primarily due to: A. Increased estrogen levels altering glandular vaginal secretions B. The shift in the vaginal flora due to increased Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG) C. The metabolic activity of Lactobacillus acidophilus producing lactic acid D. A decrease in the production of alkaline mucus components Situation: You are working at a prenatal clinic. Jamaica, a single woman who is 4 months pregnant, asks you about teratogens and their possible effects on pregnancy. The following set of questions applies. 33. Jamaica is worried about contracting toxoplasmosis since she is responsible for cleaning her cat's stool daily. She asks you about the possible effects of this infection on her baby. What is the correct answer? A. Hydrocephalus, chronic liver disease, and blueberry- muffin lesions B. Pulmonary stenosis, cleft palate, and thrombocytopenic purpura C. Microcephaly, intracerebral calcification and retinal deformities. D. Extreme rhinitis, oddly shaped teeth, rashes 34. Pregnancy risk category C includes drugs for which animal studies have shown adverse effects on the fetus, but adequate studies in humans are unavailable. Which of the following drugs is an exception to this category? A. Bufferin B. Tannate C. Gentamicin D. Ethambutol 35. Which antihypertensive drug lowers blood pressure in a normal adult but can cause oligohydramnios when taken during pregnancy? A. Orinase B. Tegison C. Etretinate D. Capoten 36. Nina, a 19-year-old woman, fell off her bike causing her to feel intense pain in her pelvic area. Her doctor orders her to be scheduled for a pelvic x-ray examination. When should a woman in a childbearing age be scheduled for pelvic x-ray examinations? A. First 10 days of a menstrual cycle B. During ovulation period C. 3 to 5 days after menstruation D. None of the above 37. These are teratogens in pregnancy. Which is a socially accepted teratogen that can cause major damage to a fetus? A. Smoking B. Cocaine C. Alcohol D. Over the counter drugs 38. A pregnant woman, Hannah, is experiencing frequent urination and pain, likely due to a urinary tract infection (UTI), which is common in pregnancy because of hormonal changes. The nurse must educate Hannah about a medication she should strictly avoid during pregnancy, as it can retard bone growth and stain the fetal teeth. Which of the following medications should the nurse advise Hannah to avoid? A. Ampicillin B. Sulfanilamide C. Tetracyclines D. Ceftriaxone 39. What is the narrowest diameter of the pelvis at the outlet? A. Transverse diameter B. Diagonal conjugate C. Ischial spine D. Symphysis pubis 40. Which of the following fetal skull areas have the narrowest diameter which can easily pass through both the pelvic inlet and outlet? A. Occipitomental B. Biparietal C. Suboccipitobregmatic D. Occipitofrontal 41. Nurse Anne performed a Leopold's Maneuver to a pregnant woman. During the procedure, Anne felt a plain mass at the right side of the mother and heard the FHR on the lower segment of the uterus. What is the fetal position? A. LSaA, breech presentation B. RSaA, breech presentation C. LOA, cephalic presentation D. ROA, cephalic presentation 42. The cardinal movements of labor is the passage of a fetus through the birth canal involving several different position changes to: A. Prevent umbilical cord prolapse through assuring an engaged fetal station. B. Allow maximum contraction time and assist with vaginal birth through the pelvic canal. C. Maintain vertex presentation and not allow misalignment of fetal position. D. Keep the smallest diameter of the fetal head parallel to the smallest diameter of the pelvis. 43. Abdominal ultrasound shows that the fetus hips are flexed but the knees are extended to rest on the chest. The buttocks alone present to the cervix. What is the fetal presentation? A. Single-footling breech B. Frank breech C. Double-footling breech D. Complete breech 44. Solana, a new and breastfeeding mother, chooses intramuscular injections as her method of reproductive life planning. Which of the following is not true in regard to this method? A. One of the advantageous effects of Depo-Provera is reduction in the frequency of sickle cell crises B. Medroxyprogesterone Acetate may impair glucose tolerance in women at risk for diabetes. C. Medroxyprogesterone Acetate should be avoided if you are breastfeeding D. Women taking Depo-Provera are advised to maintain a high calcium diet. 45. Josephine is 38 weeks pregnant and wants to use an IUD for contraception after giving birth. When is the optimal time for her to have the IUD fitted? A. 6 weeks after birth B. 3 months after birth C. At her second postpartum checkup D. Immediately after birth 46. Seventeen-year-old Joannah visits your community health clinic seeking advice on contraception methods. If she chooses to use a combination oral contraceptive (COC) for family planning, which of the following side effects are CORRECT? I. Nausea II. Monilial vaginal infections