Title WORKBOOK - OB (SC) ✅

3 | Page 34. Mrs. Rhee Tukee is admitted with a diagnosis of severe Pregnancy Induced Hypertension (PIH). Which assessment findings is an indicative of severe Pregnancy Induced Hypertension? A. A weight gain of 3 lbs/week during the previous 2 weeks. B. Severe pedal and facial edema, B/P 170/98, +4 protein on urine deep stick. C. Constant headache with visual changes, B/P 140/100, traced proteinuria. D. Urine deep stick with +2 protein, B/P 100/64, slight pedal edema. 35. A client comes to labor and delivery at 39 weeks gestation with severe headache for the past 2 days, nausea, right upper quadrant pain and visual changes including flashes of light. What should the nurse do first? A. Check clients vital signs and reflexes. B. Perform vaginal exam for cervical dilatation. C. Administer acetamenophen for the headache pain. D. Ask if the client has uterine contractions. SITUATION: Thea Nak comes to the hospital because she knows she’s in labor. Nurse Duen Dy is the staff nurse present who assesses her and provide nursing care and management. 36. When describing fetal position, the first letter in the series denotes which of the following? A. Presenting part of the fetus. B. Side of the maternal pelvis. C. Size of the maternal pelvis. D. Type of fetal delivery. 37. During which of the following stage of labor would the nurse assess “Crowning”? A. First stage B. Second stage C. Third stage D. Forth stage 38. Six hours into labor, Mrs. Thea Nak’s conditions are occurring every 2 minutes, and lasting 80 seconds. She is diaphoretic, restless and very irritable. According to these assessment findings, which stage or phase of labor is she in? A. Latent phase B. Second stage C. Third stage D. Transitional phase 39. After the neonate is delivered, the physician instructs nurse Duen to add 10 units of oxytocin (Pitocin) to Mrs. Thea’s IV to: A. Contract the uterine muscles. B. Prevent DIC C. Relax the uterine muscles D. Augment the clotting action of the platelets. 40. Which procedure would best determine if Mrs. Thea has spontaneously ruptured amniotic membranes? A. A complete blood count B. A fern test C. Urinalysis D. A vaginal exam SITUATION: Mrs. Maga Mata, gravida 2, para 0010 is admitted to the labor and delivery area in labor. Mr. and Mrs. Mata have attended Lamaze classess. Initial assessment reveals cervical dilatation of 5 cm; Cx effacement 80%, station -3, frequency of contractions 5-8 mins; duration of contractions 20-45 seconds; membrane ruptured spontaneously 1 hour before admission; presentation, vertex; fetal position, left occiput anterior (LOA), Mrs. Maga Mata is connected to external fetal monitor. 41. The FHR should be most audible in which quadrant of Mrs. Maga’s abdomen? A. Left upper quadrant B. Left lower quadrant C. Right upper quadrant D. Right lower quadrant 42. The physician places Mrs. Mata on bedrest. Which assessment findings necessitates this action? A. 5 cm cervical dilatation B. 80% cervical effacement C. Contraction every 5 to 8 minutes D. -3 station 43. During the third stage of labor, the significant nursing intervention that the nurse should perform is: A. Obtaining urine specimen and other laboratory test. B. Assess uterine contractions every 30 minutes. C. Coach for effective client pushing. D. Promote parent-newborn interaction. 44. Basing on the above assessment findings which phase of labor is Mrs. Mata manifesting? A. Latent B. Active C. Passive D. Transitional 45. A client in active labor is lying in a supine position. The nurse knows that by encouraging this position in labor, it may lead to: A. Increased venous return. B. Increased cardiac output. C. Increased blood flow to the lower extremities. D. Supine hypotension. 46. During the active phase of labor the woman reports severe back pain that becomes increasingly intense during contractions.The nurse should place the woman in which position A. Supine position B. Semi-Fowler’s C. Squatting D. Side lying on the side of the fetal back SITUATION: You are rotated in a new area of assignment from ER nurse to OB ward nurse. It is expected of you to take care of post-partum mothers so you decided to review on some concepts in post partum care. 47. Which of the following is the priority focus of nursing practice with the current early post partum discharge? A. Promoting comfort and restoration of health. B. Exploring the emotional status of the family. C. Facilitating safe and effective self and newborn care. D. Teaching about the importance of family planning. 48. Lochia serosa is characterized by which of the following? A. Creamy yellow color. B. Characteristic odor. C. Serosanguineous appearance D. White to colorless 49. Which of the following factors most influences the new mother’s successful transition to parenthood? A. Early discharge, which offers the mother and newborn an opportunity to attain needed rest and sleep at home. B. The need of both parents to know that everything is okay and that no problems will occur. C. The new mother having full emotional support of family and friends and being emotionally ready for parenthood. D. The new mother understanding the signs and symptoms of “post-partum blues” and being able to deal with them. 50. According to nurse Sing, during which of the following periods would the new mother frequently her labor and delivery experience? A. Letting-down B. Letting-go C. Taking-hold D. Taking-in 51. The woman is complaining of sore nipples while breastfeeding. The nurse instructs her to: A. Wait to latch the infant unless the infant is really hungry. B. Put warm compress on the breast and express the breast milk. C. Put ice packs on the breasts and stimulate them. D. When latching be sure that the infant has the large areola in the mouth. 52. Before assessing the post-partum client’s uterus for firmness and position in relation to umbilicus and midline. Which of the following should the nurse do first? A. Assess the vital signs. B. Administer analgesia. C. Ambulate in the hall D. Assist her to urinate
4 | Page 53. When caring for a client in a post-partum, “Taking-in” psychological adaptation phase, the nurse should plan to do which of the following? A. Promote self care activities. B. Expect control of elimination functions. C. Provide nourishment and rest. D. Teach newborn care skills. 54. Three hours after delivery, Mrs. Maeh Ngay tells the nurse that she feels dirty and wants to take a shower. She says that she never feels clean after bed baths. The nurse’s best response would be: A. “You require bed rest for the first 24 hours after delivery.” B. “You can shower but I must stay nearby.” C. “Bathing or showering isn’t permitted because they may cause chills.” D. “I’m sorry, but your not allowed to shower, I’ll give you a bed bath instead.” 55. When the nurse helps Mahee Leg decides on the “correct” contraceptive method, which of the following must she consider as the most important concerns for her patient? A. Comfort with the method. B. Religion C. Number of sexual partners D. Frequency of coitus. 56. A client is in the fourth stage of labor. What assessment would the nurse make? A. Fetal heart rate, fetal position and station. B. Dilation, effacement and station. C. Fundal location, lochia and perineum. D. Placental separation, fundal location, and uterine tone. SITUATION: Bea Ghra, a graduating nursing student wants to know more about nursing assessment and management of mothers who are high risk. She tried to answer the following questions to assess her knowledge. 57. Which of the following would the nurse assess in a client experiencing abruption placenta? A. Bright red, painless vaginal bleeding B. Concealed or external dark red bleeding. C. Palpable fetal outline. D. Soft and nontender abdomen. 58. Before surgery to remove an ectopic pregnancy, which of the following would alert nurse Stephanie to the possibility of the tubal rupture? A. Amount of the vaginal bleeding and discharge. B. Falling hematocrit and hemoglobin levels. C. Slow bounding pulse rate of 80 beats per minute. D. Marked abdominal edema. 59. Which of the following body system should the nurse assess first in a patient with abruption placenta? A. Endocrine B. Cardiovascular C. Neuromuscular D. Renal 60. The nurse should assess Maely Ngin for clinical manifestations of magnesium sulfate toxicity which include: A. Headache, blurred vision and +3 proteiniria B. Respiratory depression and loss of deep tendon reflexes. C. Flushing and sweating D. Ringing in the ears and a metallic taste in the mouth. 61. Nurse Hannah is trying to determine the frequency of uterine contractions. To determine the frequency of uterine contractions, Nurse Hannah is expected to time from the: A. Onset of one contraction until the onset of next. B. End of one contraction until the end of the end. C. Beginning of one contraction until the end of the next. D. Onset of the contraction until it ends. 62. Which of this is not a manifestation of H-mole? A. Hyperemesis gravidarum B. Absence of fetal heart beat C. Positive HCG D. Presence of fetal heart beat 63. Mrs. Mahee Leg is on 8th months pregnant and was admitted due to premature uterine contraction. During the Physical examination, the physician confirms positive for cervical dilatation. Which of the following drug should the nurse anticipate to be administered? A. Betamethasone B. Bricanyl C. Terbutaline D. Ritrodine HCL 64. Rh- incompatibility is suspected once the women is Rh negative having an Rh positive husband. If the newborn is positive for blood test and negative for direct coomb,s test. What should the nurse anticipate: A. Administer RhoGam 300 mg IM first 72 hours. B. Submit the newborn to indirect comb’s test. C. RhoGam is already useless. D. Terminate the pregnancy. 65. A patient who is 37 weeks gestation, is admitted to the hospital with the diagnosis of severe preeclampsia. In planning care for this client, the nurse would set the following priority goal. The client will: A. Conform to the nutritional regimen. B. Be a seizure- free prior to delivery C. Have a decreased B/P within 24 hours D. Maintain a sodium restriction diet. SITUATION: Reproductive life planning includes all the decisions an individual or couple make about having a children. Nurses should make the couple understands every method of contraception with complete understanding about the advantages, disadvantages and side effects of various options. 66. Mrs. Mah Hilig, who has history of toxic shock syndrome, come to the reproductive clinic seeking contraception. Based on this information, which method should the nurse avoid recommending for this client? A. Condoms B. Spermicide C. Norplant D. Cervical cap 67. Following a teaching session on how to use the diaphragm as a contraceptive method, the nurse evaluates the client’s understanding. Which statement, if made by the client, demonstrate a need for further teaching? A. “I need to leave the diaphragm for at least 6 hours after having intercourse.” B. “I will need to inspect the diaphragm after I take it out and clean it.’ C. “When I want to get pregnant, I can just stop using my diaphragm.” D. “If a choose a diaphragm, I won’t need to use any spermicide.” 68. When teaching the client with diabetes concerning the use of birth control methods, the nurse should encourage the client to use: A. Oral contraceptives B. Condoms C. Contraceptive patches D. IUD 69. During a pelvic examination, Nurse Biluan notes a purple notes a purple-blue discoloration of the vagina. The nurse documents this as: A. Braxton-Hicks sign B. Chadwick’s sign C. Goodel’s sign D. Mc Donald’s sign 70. Nurse KABA, who works in a prenatal clinic, review Mrs.Secs Wal’s chart and notes the physician documented that the client has a gynecoid pelvis. Nurse KABA then plans care for this client knowing that this type of pelvis: A. Is not favorable for labor. B. Has a narrow pubic arch C. Is a wide pelvis with a short diameter. D. Is the most favorable for labor and birth 71. Mrs. Secs Wal tells Nurse KABA that she wants to know the sex of the fetus as soon as it can be determined. Nurse KABA responds to the client, knowing that the sex of the fetus can be visually recognized as early as week: A. 4 B. 6 C. 8 D. 12