Title RECALLS 7 - NP2 - SC ✅

RECALLS 7 EXAMINATION NURSING PRACTICE II CARE OF HEALTHY / AT RISK MOTHER AND CHILD NOVEMBER 2025 Philippine Nurse Licensure Examination Review GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS: 1. This test questionnaire contains 100 test questions 2. Shade only one (1) box for each question on your answer sheets. Two or more boxes shaded will invalid your answer. 3. AVOID ERASURES. 4. Detach one (1) answer sheet from the bottom of your Examinee ID/Answer Sheet Set. 5. Write the subject title “NURSING PRACTICE II” on the box provided Situation: Nurse Joel is collecting data from a newly admitted patient, Mrs. Christine, who is pregnant with twins. She has a healthy 3-year-old child who was delivered at 38 weeks. She also revealed that she does not have a history of abortion nor fetal demise. Her last menstrual period began February 7, 2017 and ended February 12, 2017. 1. What is the GTPAL for Mrs. Christine? A. G = 1, T = 1 , P = 1, A = 0, L = 1 B. G = 2, T = 0 , P = 0, A = 0, L = 1 C. G = 3, T = 2 , P = 0, A = 0, L = 1 D. G = 2, T = 1 , P = 0, A = 0, L = 1 2. Mrs. Christine asks “When will be my expected date of delivery (EDD)?” Based on her knowledge of Naegeles’ Rule, which should be the CORRECT answer of Nurse Joel? A. November 14, 2017 B. October 14, 2017 C. October 19, 2017 D. November 19, 2017 3. A pregnant client reports morning sickness, nausea and vomiting, missed periods, and breast tenderness. Which of these would be classified as a presumptive sign of pregnancy? A. Fetal outline felt by examiner B. Positive pregnancy test. C. Breast tenderness. D. Fetal heart tones detected by Doppler. 4. A 10-week pregnant client asks the nurse how to determine if she’s truly pregnant. Nurse Priscila is correct if he explains that a positive sign of pregnancy is: A. Enlarged breasts. B. Presence of fetal heart tones detected by Doppler. C. Positive pregnancy test. D. Presence of Quickening 5. A patient asks Nurse Yor about the signs and symptoms of pregnancy. Nurse Yor is correct if she states: A. "The first perception of fetal movement that you have felt at 16th to 20th week of gestation is a probable sign of pregnancy." B. "The compressibility and softening of the lower uterine segment that occurs about the 6th week is a probable sign." C. “The examiner palpating fetal movement at 18 weeks is a probable sign." D. "Pigmentation changes such as linea nigra and melasma are considered probable signs of pregnancy." Situation: A neonate is born by primary cesarean section at 36 weeks gestation. The temperature in the birthing room is 21 degree celsius. 6. When the couple touches the newborn's shoulders, the skin feels warm. The nurse explains that the best insulator for the newborn is: A. Brown fat. B. Glucose. C. Glycogen. D. Lanugo. 7. Drying the infant immediately after birth helps prevent heat loss from what mechanism? A. Conduction B. Convection C. Evaporation D. Radiation 8. After assisting with a vaginal delivery, what would the nurse do to prevent heat loss via conduction in the newborn? A. Wrap the newborn in a blanket. B. Close the doors to the delivery room. C. Dry the newborn with a warm blanket. D. Place the newborn on a warm crib pad. 9. To prevent heat loss from convection, which action should Nurse Calvin do? A. Dry the neonate quickly B. Keep the neonate away from air conditioning vents C. Pre-warm the bed D. None of the above 10. When performing nursing care for a neonate after birth, which intervention has the highest nursing priority? A. Give the vitamin K injection B. Give the initial bath C. Obtain a dextrostix D. Cover the neonate’s head with a cap Situation: The nurse has admitted a client diagnosed with gestational hypertension who is in labor. 11. Which of the following are present in pregnancy-induced hypertension? A. Hypertension, proteinuria, and edema. B. Hypertension, gestational diabetes, and edema. C. Hypertension, seizure, and proteinuria. D. Proteinuria, edema, and seizure. 12. The nurse monitors the client closely for which complication of gestational hypertension? A. Seizures B. Hallucinations C. Placenta previa D. Altered respiratory status 13. Nurse Alex is preparing a plan of care for client Sophia with pre-eclampsia and documents that if client Sophia progresses from preeclampsia to eclampsia, Nurse Alex should take which first action? A. Administer oxygen by face mask. B. Clear and maintain an open airway C. Administer magnesium sulfate intravenously D. Assess the blood pressure and fetal heart rate 14. Nurse Alex is administering magnesium sulfate to another client experiencing severe preeclampsia. What intervention would the nurse implement during the administration of magnesium sulfate for this client? A. Schedule a daily ultrasound to assess fetal movement. 1 | Page
B. Schedule a nonstress test every 4 hours to assess fetal well-being. C. Assess the client's temperature every 2 hours because the client is at high risk for infection. D. Assess for signs and symptoms of labor since the client's level of consciousness may be altered. 15. Which of the following signs would alert Nurse Alex to administer calcium gluconate? A. Urine output of 30ml/hr B. Respiratory rate of 35cpm C. Blood pressure of 130/80 mmHg D. Absent of patellar reflexes Situation: Maria, a 32-year-old mother of five in rural Mindanao, wants to use contraceptives offered for free at the barangay health center. 16. Which of the following women should be considered as special targets for family planning? A. Those who have two children or more B. Those with medical conditions such as anemia C. Those younger than 20 years and older than 35 years D. Those who just had a delivery within the past 15 months 17. Freedom of choice in one of the policies of the Family Planning Program of the Philippines. Which of the following illustrates this principle? A. Information dissemination about the need for family planning B. Support of research and development in family planning methods C. Adequate information for couples regarding the different methods D. Encouragement of couples to take family planning as a joint responsibility 18. The nurse provides instructions to Maria who will begin taking oral contraceptives. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching? A. "I will take one pill daily at the same time every day." B. "If I miss a pill, I must take it as soon as I remember." C. "I will not need to use an additional birth control method after I start these pills." D. "If I miss two pills, I will take them both as soon as I remember, and then two pills the next day." 19. She has regular menstrual cycles of 28 days and wants to know when she is most fertile. When is she most likely to be fertile based on the typical menstrual cycle? A. Days 9-16 B. Days 22-28 C. Days 1-5 D. Days 17-21 20. There are two research projects under study. The first is entitled "Effects of Nurses Contraceptive Counseling on Unwanted Birth" and the second is entitled "Effects of Unwanted Birth on the Incidence of Child Abuse.” Which of the following choices is true regarding these two studies? A. Both research problems have the same dependent variable B. Both research problems have the same independent variable C. The Independent variable in the first research problem is used as dependent. variable on the second study D. The dependent variable in the first research problem is used as independent variable in the second one Situation: The nurse is performing an assessment on a female client who is suspected of having mittelschmerz. 21. Which subjective finding supports the possibility of this condition? A. Experiences pain during intercourse B. Has pain at the onset of menstruation C. Experiences profuse vaginal bleeding D. Has sharp pelvic pain during ovulation 22. When teaching clients to determine the time of ovulation by taking the basal temperature, the nurse explains that the change in the basal temperature during ovulation is shown in which of the following observations? The temperature_____________. A. Drops markedly and remains lower B. Rises markedly and remains high C. Drops slightly and then rises again D. Rises suddenly and then falls down 23. After ovulation has occurred, the nurse teaches women in the fertility clinic that the ovum is through to remain viable for many HOURS? A. 24 to 36 B. 12 to 18 C. 48 to 72 D. 1 to 6 24. The nurse performs an assessment on Mrs. Mangaban. Which of the findings would be indicative of endometriosis? Select all that apply. 1. Spotting after intercourse 2. Menorrhagia 3. Persistent dysmenorrhea 4. Mass felt on palpation. 5. Dyspareunia 6. Yellow purulent discharge A. 2, 3 and 4 B. 3, 4 and 5 C. 1, 2 and 3 D. 4, 5 and 6 25. What is dyspareunia? A. Painful sex B. Painful menstruation C. Painful ovulation D. Painful pareunia Situation: Nurse Jun is educating Ms. Baby, a 25-year-old woman, about her menstrual cycle. Ms. Baby is concerned about the regularity, duration, and flow of her periods. She wants to understand what is considered normal and when she should seek medical advice. 26. Nurse Jun is educating Ms. Baby on the normal duration of a menstrual cycle. What is the average length of a menstrual cycle in most women? A. 21 days B. 28 days C. 35 days D. 40 days 27. Nurse Jun explains to Ms. Baby that the duration of menstrual bleeding can vary. What is the average range for the number of days a woman may experience menstrual bleeding? A. 1-3 days B. 4-6 days C. 7-10 days D. 11-14 days 28. Nurse Jun reviews the typical amount of menstrual flow with Ms. Baby. What is the average amount of menstrual flow during a period? A. 10-30 mL B. 30-80 mL C. 80-100 mL D. 100-150 mL 29. Nurse Jun discusses with Ms. Baby the normal characteristics of menstrual odor. What should Ms. Baby understand if her menstrual blood has an odor similar to marigold? A. Presence of bacterial infection B. Normal hormonal changes C. Excessive menstrual flow D. Recent dietary changes 30. Nurse Jun educates Ms. Baby about normal characteristics of menstrual blood. Which of the following statements about the color of menstrual blood is accurate? A. Menstrual blood is typically bright red in color. B. Menstrual blood is usually dark red or brown in color. C. Menstrual blood is yellowish in color. D. Menstrual blood color varies from white to pink. Situation: Danica, a multiparous patient is admitted due to labor pains which started an hour ago. During the vaginal examination, the nurse noted the complete dilatation of the 2 | Page
cervix and effacement is 100 percent. The patient is in true labor pains. 31. The nurse is caring for Danica with a precipitous labor. What information would the nurse provide to the client regarding this type of labor? A. Induction may be necessary. B. The onset of contractions is gradual. C. The labor may last less than 3 hours. D. A lengthy period of pushing may be necessary. 32. Patient Josephine was referred to the physician, routine blood examinations were taken. After reviewing the serum electrolyte levels, an order of isotonic intravenous (IV) infusion was prescribed. Which IV solution should the nurse prepare? A. 5 percent dextrose in water B. 0.45 percent sodium chloride solution C. 10 percent dextrose in water D. 3 percent sodium chloride solution 33. Nurse Jordyn reads the physician's prescription to administer methylergonovine maleate (Methergin) intramuscularly after delivery. The rationale for giving this medication is which of the following? A. Reduces the amount of lochia drainage. B. Prevents postpartum hemorrhage C. Decreases uterine contractions. D. Maintains normal blood pressure. 34. Patient Danica asks why her labor is much shorter compared to previous deliveries. Which of the following is the BEST RESPONSE? A. Onset of contraction was gradual. B. Multigravida patients have shorter labor. C. Cervical lengthening was longer. D. Induction of labor was done. 35. The mechanisms involved in fetal delivery is: A. Descent, extension, flexion, external rotation B. Descent, flexion, internal rotation, extension, external rotation C. Flexion, internal rotation, external rotation, extension D. Internal rotation, extension, external rotation, flexion Situation: Nurse Josephine is educating a postpartum mother about the concept of lochia and puerperium. 36. For uterine assessment after delivery, position the patient supine so that the height of the uterus is not influenced by an elevated position. Observe the abdomen for contour, to detect distention, and for the appearance of striae or a diastasis. Where will you begin to place your hand? A. fundus of the uterus B. just above the symphysis pubis C. at the umbilicus D. side of the abdomen 37. The nurse is performing an assessment on a mother who just delivered a healthy newborn. When checking the uterine fundus the nurse should expect to note that the fundus is positioned at which location? A. To the right of the abdomen B. At the level of the umbilicus C. Above the level of the umbilicus D. One fingerbreadth above the symphysis pubis 38. A postpartum nurse caring for a client who delivered vaginally 2 hours ago palpates the fundus and notes the character of the lochia. Which characteristic of the lochia would indicate to the nurse that the client's recovery is normal? A. Pink-colored lochia B. White-colored lochia C. Serosanguineous lochia D. Dark red-colored lochia 39. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? A. "I should expect to see lochia for up to 6 weeks after delivery." B. "Lochia should be a yellowish color after the first few days." C. "The color of lochia should progress from red to pink to white." D. "If the lochia reverses in color, I should contact my doctor." 40. A 28-year-old primiparous woman, 2 days postpartum, is exhibiting passive behavior, expressing fatigue and stating, "I can't seem to do anything right." Which phase of puerperium is most likely being exhibited? A. Taking-in phase B. Taking-hold phase C. Letting-go phase D. Giving-up phase Situation: Gestational Trophoblastic disease or abnormal proliferation of the trophoblastic villi tend to occur most often to women who have a low protein intake, women older than 35 years old, and in women of Asian heritage. 41. The characteristic manifestation of gestational trophoblastic disease is: A. Uterus tends to expand slower than a normal pregnancy B. Lower abdominal quadrant pain C. Hyperemesis Gravidarum D. An HCG level of 400,000 IU 42. Assessment of client diagnosed to have hydatidiform mole would include: A. Falling blood pressure with increased cardiac rate B. Absence of fetal heart sounds C. Diaphoresis D. Delusions 43. Which of the following is NOT an expected assessment for a client with H-mole? A. Rapid increase in uterine size B. Excessive nausea and vomiting C. Slow abdominal enlargement D. Vaginal bleeding 44. A common drug given to stop the rapid growth of a hydatidiform mole is: A. Methotrexate B. Meperidine C. Mifepristone D. Misoprostol 45. Which of the following discharge instructions must be given to a woman who has just undergone suction and curettage for gestational trophoblastic disease? A. “Visit your physician after one year for a follow-up examination to find out if there is still a possibility that get pregnant.” B. “Women who have had a molar pregnancy must avoid sexual intercourse for a year or two.” C. “HCG levels usually return to normal 48 hours after evacuation.” D. “Use a reliable contraceptive method for 12 months.” Situation: Placenta Previa and Abruptio Placentae are two serious obstetric conditions involving abnormalities in placental location or separation. 46. A client at 36 weeks gestation arrives at the emergency department with painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. The nurse suspects which complication? A. Placenta previa B. Abruptio placentae C. Uterine rupture D. Vasa previa 47. The nurse is assessing a patient with placenta previa who has experienced vaginal bleeding. Which of the following findings requires immediate intervention? A. Blood color is bright red B. Fetal heart rate is 130 bpm C. The patient reports no pain D. Blood pressure decreases from 120/80 to 80/60 mmHg 48. A pregnant woman is admitted with a tentative diagnosis of placenta previa. The nurse implements orders to start an IV infusion, administer oxygen, and draw blood for laboratory tests. The client’s apprehension is increasing, and she asks the nurse what is happening. The nurse tells her not to worry, that she is going to be all right, and that everything is under control. What is the best interpretation of the nurse’s statement? 3 | Page
A. Adequate, because the preparations are routine and need no explanation B. Effective, because the client’s anxieties would increase if she knew the danger involved C. Questionable, because the client has the right to know what treatment is being given and why D. Incorrect, because only the healthcare provider should offer assurances about management of care 49. A perinatal home care nurse has just assessed the fetal status of a client with a diagnosis of partial placental abruption of 20 weeks' gestation. The client is experiencing new bleeding and reports less fetal movement. The nurse informs the client that the obstetrician will be contacted for possible hospital admission. The client begins to cry quietly while holding her abdomen with her hands. She murmurs, "No, no, you can't go, my little man." The nurse would recognize the client's behavior as an indication of which psychosocial reaction? A. Fear of hospitalization B. Fear of loss and the death of the fetus C. Grief due to potential loss of the fetus D. Cognitive confusion as a result of shock 50. The bleeding in placenta previa is contrasted to that of abruption placenta is such a way that: A. Bleeding in abruptio placenta is painful while bleeding in placenta previa is painless B. Bleeding in abruptio placenta is internal while bleeding in placenta previa external C. There is more blood loss in abruption placenta D. There is more blood loss in placenta previa Situation: Nurse Ember Lily is conducting a developmental assessment on various pediatric patients. She is reviewing their growth and developmental milestones to ensure they are on track and providing guidance to their parents. 51. Nurse Ember Lily is assessing a 6-month-old infant. Which finding is not typical for an infant of this age? A. Height increases by 1 inch per month B. Birth weight has tripled C. Posterior fontanel has closed D. Nocturnal sleep pattern lasts 9 to 11 hours 52. During a well-child visit, Nurse Ember Lily notes that a 2-year-old toddler has a head circumference of 19 inches. What other physical characteristics are expected in a child of this age? A. Weight doubled from birth weight B. Height increase of 1 inch per month C. Anterior fontanel closed D. No need for daytime naps 53. Nurse Ember Lily is reviewing the growth of a 2-year-old toddler. Which statement is not accurate for this age? A. Weight gain slows down compared to infancy B. Head circumference increases about 1 inch C. Anterior fontanel is still open D. Height increase is about 3 inches per year 54. Nurse Ember Lily is monitoring a 10-year-old child's growth and development. What physical growth pattern is expected for this age group? A. Growth spurts of 6 inches per year B. Weight gain of 10 pounds per year C. Height increase of 2 inches per year D. Loss of all primary teeth by age 10 55. Nurse Ember Lily is discussing puberty with a group of adolescents. Which statement about puberty is not true? A. Menstrual periods occur about 2.5 years after the onset of puberty B. Body mass reaches adult size C. Puberty starts at the same age for everyone D. Sebaceous and sweat glands become fully functional Situation: Nurse Aliyah is reviewing pediatric clients with gastrointestinal disorders. 56. During assessment, the mother of a 5-year-old reports that her daughter is experiencing constipation and ribbon-like stools. The nurse recognizes this as a symptom of which condition? A. Aganglionic Megacolon B. Volvulus C. Intussusception D. Hernia 57. Which dietary recommendation is most appropriate for a child post-operatively for Hirschsprung’s disease? A. High-fiber, low-calorie diet B. Gluten-free, low-fat diet C. Low-fiber, high-calorie, high-protein diet D. Dairy-free, high-fiber diet 58. During health teaching of a patient with celiac disease, which statement indicates a correct understanding of gluten sources? A. "Oats are always safe as they do not contain gluten." B. "Small amounts of rye are safe in a gluten-free diet." C. “All dairy products must be eliminated to control symptoms." D. "Rice and quinoa are excellent gluten-free alternatives." 59. Nurse Aliyah is providing health teaching for the parents of a child diagnosed with intussusception. During the session, one parent asks about nursing interventions. Which of the following is inappropriate for the nurse to perform? A. Monitor for the passage of normal, brown stool, indicating the condition has resolved. B. Monitor for signs of perforation or shock (fever, tachycardia, changes in level of consciousness, respiratory distress). C. Explain the surgical procedure and obtain informed consent. D. Provide guidance and emotional support. 60. A friend of the parents of a newborn with a diagnosis of congenital tracheoesophageal fistula contacts the home health nurse with an offer to help. Which is the best nursing action at this time to address the needs and rights of the family? A. Inform the friend to directly contact the family and offer assistance to them. B. Request that the friend come to the client's home during the next home health visit. C. Report the friend's call to the nurse manager for referral to the client's social worker. D. Assure the friend that there is no need for assistance since the nurse is visiting daily. Situation: Nurse Bud is assigned in caring for patients with cleft lip and palate. 61. Nurse Bud is assessing a newborn with an orofacial defect. He notes that the maxillary and median nasal processes have failed to fuse. This condition is identified as: A. Cleft palate B. Cleft lip C. Palatine tonsil D. Maxillary fusion 62. A client has just given birth to a newborn who has a cleft lip and palate. When planning to talk with the client, Nurse Bud recognizes that the client needs to first work through which emotion before maternal bonding can occur? A. Guilt B. Grief C. Anger D. Depression 63. What is the MOST APPROPRIATE response of the nurse to the mother’s question as to when the child will be ready for a cleft palate repair? Cleft palate repair is usually done ____ A. When a large-holed feeding bottle is ineffective for his feeding B. When the child is completely weaned from bottle feeding C. Prior to the development of speech D. After the child has been toilet trained 64. Nurse Bud is assigned to care for an infant on the first postoperative day after a surgical repair of a cleft lip. Which nursing intervention is appropriate when caring for this child’s surgical incision? A. Rinsing the incision with sterile water after feeding B. Cleaning the incision only when serous exudate forms C. Rubbing the incision gently with a sterile cotton-tipped swab 4 | Page